My friend and I are having a discussion re. Mendelian probability
We want to find out the probability of the ? child being a sufferer of an autosomal recessive condition.
We do not know the full genotype of the parents - only the first letter, which is the clear dominant.
Here is where we are disagreeing:
Before the parent's birth, we both agree (simple Mendelian) that the odds of a parent being Clear [RR] 25%, Carrier [Rr] 50%, Affected [rr] 25%
* I think that the odds of a parent (both shown as P/-) of ? carrying the recessive gene is 66% (and being clear [RR] as 33%).
This is because we know, for certain, that they are not sufferers [rr]. There is a 0% chance of them being [rr] Therefore the odds change.
* My friend thinks that their initial odds before birth affect these odds now - similar to the Monty Hall gameshow problem.
I think he's wrong, and they're two different probabilities.
Someone help please! We're both relatively new at this!
I've attached my workings here
We want to find out the probability of the ? child being a sufferer of an autosomal recessive condition.
We do not know the full genotype of the parents - only the first letter, which is the clear dominant.
Here is where we are disagreeing:
Before the parent's birth, we both agree (simple Mendelian) that the odds of a parent being Clear [RR] 25%, Carrier [Rr] 50%, Affected [rr] 25%
* I think that the odds of a parent (both shown as P/-) of ? carrying the recessive gene is 66% (and being clear [RR] as 33%).
This is because we know, for certain, that they are not sufferers [rr]. There is a 0% chance of them being [rr] Therefore the odds change.
* My friend thinks that their initial odds before birth affect these odds now - similar to the Monty Hall gameshow problem.
I think he's wrong, and they're two different probabilities.
Someone help please! We're both relatively new at this!
I've attached my workings here
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