Are you proud to be British?

Makes no sense. If someone is poor, how does his neighbour being as poor make it a more preferable scenario?

If you can’t afford to eat, you are still hungry regardless if you have nothing to compare it to. It’s better for some to be able to afford to eat because they buy the food which stimulates the economy and therefore provides a better opportunity to raise all standards of living.

If everyone is poor there is no basis for economic recovery and no chance of progression.
 
Makes no sense. If someone is poor, how does his neighbour being as poor make it a more preferable scenario?

If you can’t afford to eat, you are still hungry regardless if you have nothing to compare it to. It’s better for some to be able to afford to eat because they buy the food which stimulates the economy and therefore provides a better opportunity to raise all standards of living.

If everyone is poor there is no basis for economic recovery and no chance of progression.

Again, you're adding more premises into the scenarios.

Let me explain it mathematically. To do so, we assume constants between the two scenarios to allow us to compare equally. Both scenarios both produce beer and each produces 10 beers. We assume a perfect market with 100% demand.

Scenario A. Everyone is equally poor. Let's say each person has £1 and there are 10 people. So the total wealth is £10.

Scenario B, There are 8 poor people with £1 and 2 rich ones who have £5 each. A total of £18.

Scenario B is therefore richer on aggregate than scenario A.

In scenario A, there is £10 and 10 beers, the price of beers is therefore £1 and everyone can buy a beer.

However in scenario B, there is £18 and still only 10 beers, so the price of beer is £1.80. Here, only the rich can buy beer and they can buy 2 each and have change. The poor on the other hand stay thirsty.

So for the poor, scenario A is better. Even though aggregate wealth is less. Wealth is relative.
 
I most certainly am not falling into that trap. This is abstract.

What you and the poster are saying is that scenario B is better because some people are more wealthy. As an absolute aggregate, when you compare A with B, that is undeniably true. But that only benefits those who are wealthy. The poor in scenario A are just as poor and the poor in scenario b are just as poor.

What I'm saying is that wealth is relative, so the reality of scenario B is that the poor in that scenario are worse off than those in scenario A who have no-one to be relatively less wealthy than.

Therefore if you are poor, scenario A is preferable.

why is it preferable - if you're equally poor in either scenario then you're in the same situation... however at least in scenario B you have a chance to not be poor

it makes no sense that scenario A is preferable - you're at the nut low position by default - in scenario B you may be in that position or you may be in a better one
 
Again, you're adding more premises into the scenarios.

Let me explain it mathematically. To do so, we assume constants between the two scenarios to allow us to compare equally. Both scenarios both produce beer and each produces 10 beers. We assume a perfect market with 100% demand.

Scenario A. Everyone is equally poor. Let's say each person has £1 and there are 10 people. So the total wealth is £10.

Scenario B, There are 8 poor people with £1 and 2 rich ones who have £5 each. A total of £18.

Scenario B is therefore richer on aggregate than scenario A.

In scenario A, there is £10 and 10 beers, the price of beers is therefore £1 and everyone can buy a beer.

However in scenario B, there is £18 and still only 10 beers, so the price of beer is £1.80. Here, only the rich can buy beer and they can buy 2 each and have change. The poor on the other hand stay thirsty.

So for the poor, scenario A is better. Even though aggregate wealth is less. Wealth is relative.

now you're adding more premises to the scenarios - you've changed things so that the poor people in scenario B are actually poorer by placing a constraint on what is available within that economy

the scenarios as described by the other poster inherently means that scenarioB, where people are at the level of scenario A or higher has more wealth... you can't then try to undermine this by arguing that the real wealth is fixed in both cases which is what you've done by placing a arbitrary restraint on the total quantities of beer... which is what you've essentially done by devaluing the £ in scenario B
 
why is it preferable - if you're equally poor in either scenario then you're in the same situation... however at least in scenario B you have a chance to not be poor

it makes no sense that scenario A is preferable - you're at the nut low position by default - in scenario B you may be in that position or you may be in a better one

Explained above.
 
now you're adding more premises to the scenarios - you've changed things so that the poor people in scenario B are actually poorer by placing a constraint on what is available within that economy

No, that's what I'm not doing, what I'm doing is comparing two scenarios that are exactly the same except for wealth distribution.
 
No, that's what I'm not doing, what I'm doing is comparing two scenarios that are exactly the same except for wealth distribution.

you're changing the scenarios presented by the other poster - he didn't place a cap on anything, in your scenario B the poor people are actually poorer which is against what was specified

and back in the real world, we can look at East and West Germany and see how that worked out
 
What a crazy notion. You assume that if someone is designated as being poor then that’s all they will ever be. There isn’t a fixed amount of money in an economy there is a fluctuating amount of money connected to every other economy in the world which also is fluctuating.

You have essentially designed a constrained economy within your scenario just to prove a point. Except it has no actual relation to reality.
 
you're changing the scenarios presented by the other poster - he didn't place a cap on anything, in your scenario B the poor people are actually poorer which is against what was specified

and back in the real world, we can look at East and West Germany and see how that worked out

He didn't mention a cap. Neither did I. If you want to raise production in B, feel free, just do it by the same in A. The maths will still work out.

And we weren't talking about the real world, we were talking about an assertion, that I disagree with, that wealth inequality isn't a bad thing for poor people, which it quite obviously and demonstrably is.
 
What a crazy notion. You assume that if someone is designated as being poor then that’s all they will ever be. There isn’t a fixed amount of money in an economy there is a fluctuating amount of money connected to every other economy in the world which also is fluctuating.

It's called a model. I assume you're familiar with the concept of modelling?
 
He didn't mention a cap. Neither did I. If you want to raise production in B, feel free, just do it by the same in A. The maths will still work out.

And we weren't talking about the real world, we were talking about an assertion, that I disagree with, that wealth inequality isn't a bad thing for poor people, which it quite obviously and demonstrably is.

you did place a cap... your £s became irrelevant and you had a fixed number of beers in each scenario - albeit the people in scenario A had more beers ergo more wealth than the poor in scenario B which isn't what was specified....

I know we weren't talking about the real world, in the other posters assertion the poor in scenario B are just as poor as those in scenario A

so lets say in scenario A everyone has a 2 bedroom council flat, a single small car and can afford basic meals

in scenario B some people are at that level - 2 bedroom council flat, single small car and basic meals... others can afford a detached house, others a mansion etc..

it makes no sense that scenario A is better... sure inequality is reduced massively in scenario A but the point being made by the other poster was that that doesn't matter if everyone is poor. Scenario B is clearly better, even if you're poor there is at least a chance of bettering your situation
 
you did place a cap...

I know we weren't talking about the real world, in the other posters assertion the poor in scenario B are just as poor as those in scenario A

so lets say in scenario A everyone has a 2 bedroom council flat, a single small car and can afford basic meals

in scenario B some people are at that level - 2 bedroom council flat, single small car and basic meals... others can afford a detached house, others a mansion etc..

it makes no sense that scenario A is better... sure inequality is reduced massively in scenario A but the point being made by the other poster was that that doesn't matter if everyone is poor. Scenario B is clearly better, even if you're poor there is at least a chance of bettering your situation

Which has nothing to do with wealth inequality?

Unless you're arguing that wealth inequality itself causes an increase in resource and production?

If you are, please feel free to explain your model.
 
We could always stay in the EU superstate which will eventually have its own army, it’s own centrally dictated monetary policy and a system of free movement which is systematically destroying the individual cultures of each member nation (certainly in the west).
And while the superstate thrives we'll be living on our home-grown potatoes, playing conkers and hanging the bunting . All the while trading with countries hell bent on destroying the planet, or committing despicable acts against their own population, or both. We'll be looking in from the outside - ostracised and deservedly so for our arrogance. I say our, I of course refer to the 52%.

As for the pride thing. Never really understood it. Already been said a million times, but one can only be proud of what one has achieved personally. You can't be proud of something which happened years ago or sat idly by while someone else slogged there guts out.

In fact the Oxford English dictionary states the following:

A feeling of deep pleasure or satisfaction derived from one's own achievements, the achievements of one's close associates, or from qualities or possessions that are widely admired.
 
It's called a model. I assume you're familiar with the concept of modelling?

Wow - I wish you had explained that before because clearly that changes everything.

The model you had described is pure fantasy. There is never only X amount of money in an economy. Therefore, it’s not valid on any level of reality.

A level of fluctuating inequality is a good thing in a free market scenario. I am not talking about staggering levels of inequality. But there has to be a level of demand which creates work.
 
Which has nothing to do with wealth inequality?

Unless you're arguing that wealth inequality itself causes an increase in resource and production?

If you are, please feel free to explain your model.

I'm just explaining that what the other poster presented isn't the same as what you presented and why your changing it undermines it as you made the people in scenario B poorer
 
I personally believe we are in a very good place in terms of the way our country works compared to many other places in the world. We have a very multicultural society which does not have to many extremes like say America, we have base infrastructure that helps provide support for people (NHS) various other things.

While we not be the best in everything, all round this is a great country to live in. My mother moved here when she was 21 with my father and I was born here. I've lived in other countries/America/Canada and i still love it here. Canada was a lovely place though :p.

All in all I am very proud to be British.
 
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