Ok so I have been thinking.
Most people will be aware of classical conditioning, Pavlov’s dogs and all that.
Basically is eliciting a physiological response from external stimuli.
E.g. Pavlov rang a bell every time he fed his dogs. Eventually the food was no longer needed; just ringing the bell would be enough to cause the dogs to have a physical response (salivating)
So why would this approach not be possible with drugs. So causing the release of serotonin and dopamine in your brain associated with ecstasy, the increased bloods flow, heart rate etc.
Now if you were to condition this response to say a piece of music would it be possible to experience a physical response similar to a 'high'?
Putting aside the prospect of a free high, uses such as rehab for addiction may be possible. Would a heroin addict's pain coming off the drug be lessened if they could be conditioned to trick their body into feeling as if they had taken the drug without actually taking it?
Most people will be aware of classical conditioning, Pavlov’s dogs and all that.
Basically is eliciting a physiological response from external stimuli.
E.g. Pavlov rang a bell every time he fed his dogs. Eventually the food was no longer needed; just ringing the bell would be enough to cause the dogs to have a physical response (salivating)
So why would this approach not be possible with drugs. So causing the release of serotonin and dopamine in your brain associated with ecstasy, the increased bloods flow, heart rate etc.
Now if you were to condition this response to say a piece of music would it be possible to experience a physical response similar to a 'high'?
Putting aside the prospect of a free high, uses such as rehab for addiction may be possible. Would a heroin addict's pain coming off the drug be lessened if they could be conditioned to trick their body into feeling as if they had taken the drug without actually taking it?