I've never heard of such a case and I really don't think this is the definition of rape. Do you have an article or something you could send a link to that clarifies this and confirm either of these cases happened?
http://metro.co.uk/2013/04/24/sex-with-consent-can-still-be-rape-3665975/
that's the husband raping his wife by not pulling out one.
and then there's dozens and dozens of articles on "stealthing" ie agreeing to shag with a condom then removing it.
remember if consent comes with conditions and you break those conditions you do not have consent.
fairly relevant to this thread as it resulted in an unwanted pregnancy caused by the male.
The husband now faces prosecution for rape following the court’s ruling that, if he deliberately ignored his wife’s wish that he withdraw before ejaculation, she had not consented to sex.