There is more than one occasion in more than one book where such things are stated.
Not really, no. For example, the two most quoted verses are both in Leviticus and are copies of each other (one with the death penalty, one without). There are a few other verses in the old testament, all of which are unclear and all of which can be ignored by Christians in a theologically sound way. There's one in the New Testament, but it's not part of the teachings of Jesus (it's from Paul), so Christians could ignore it for that reason. It's also utterly unclear what Paul was referring to, as he used a word that isn't used elsewhere (EDIT: transliterated Greek - arsenokoitai )and was not any of the words used by ancient Greeks to refer to men who had homosexual sex. So no-one actually knows what he was referring to anyway.
But the example was just to highlight that The Bible can be Mis-Interpreted as easily as the Quran,
Far more easily, I'd say, because it's a collection of books selected from a far larger collection of writings and passed through one or more translations.
Your translation is incorrect however . I'm not sure where you get the translation "And with a man you shall not lay lyings of a woman." from?
It's the literal translation of the oldest extant Hebrew version, which is the oldest extant version. You were talking about the literal meaning - that is the literal meaning. What did the person who wrote it more than two millenia ago intend it to mean? Nobody really knows.
The King James Bible states: Leviticus 20:13
"If a man also lie with mankind, as he lieth with a woman, both of them have committed an abomination: they shall surely be put to death; their blood shall be upon them."
The latest Translation in the World English Bible:
"'If a man lies with a male, as with a woman, both of them have committed an abomination: they shall surely be put to death; their blood shall be upon them."
these are the latest translations of each version, so are not inaccurate.
i) The KJV is from 1611. It is not the latest translation, not by a long chalk. You've given a modern English version of it (bar 'lieth', which is an anachronism in this context).
ii) What makes you think that the latest translation of something must be accurate?
Its plainly advocating the death penalty for Homosexuality. I am not saying that modern christians follow the literal meaning of the Bible, just that it can conceivably be interpreted in an extreme fashion as can the Quran.
i) It's Jewish, not Christian.
ii) It's not a correct translation.
iii) It's not advocated by Christians.
iv) Christianity allows for an assertion that the Christian bible isn't the word of god anyway.
So it's not the same situation as with the Quran.
Incidentally, why is 'Quran' now the preferred transliteration? It doesn't make sense in English, so it's a pretty poor transliteration into English.
And not so hard pressed if there is the Westboro Baptist Church, which as you say has been denounced by moderate Christian churches, as Islam4uk has been by the moderate Muslim council of Britain which represents British Islam.
i) It has only a few dozen members, nearly all (all?) of whom are from the same family.
ii) It has been formally disowned, not just denounced. It is not recognised as a valid church at all.
iii) It is not running countries.
So, again, it is not a valid comparison. And you would be hard pressed to find Christians advocating the death penalty for homosexuality.
There are many Chritian and Neo-Nazi and far-right groups who advocate death for Homosexuals. We are talking of Moderate Christians who do not, As Moderate Muslims do not.
I'm sure there are neo-Nazi and other far-right groups who do so, but this is about religion. So I'd like you to substantiate your claim and provide examples of many Christian groups who advocate the death penalty for homosexuality.
I must also point out that these are not my beliefs either, I do not advocate murder or hatred for any reason before you accuse me of such instead of admitting your mistake.
Since I haven't made a mistake, I am hardly likely to admit to this mistake I haven't made.
So...how do you personally get around the direct commands from god for torture and death that are in the Quran without saying that the Quran is wrong?
To pick just one example, An-Nur 24: 2
For an Islamic discussion on it:
http://www.islamonline.net/servlet/...h-Ask_Scholar/FatwaE/FatwaE&cid=1119503548032
Note that isn't an unsual or extreme position. An extreme position would define zina far more widely, as Mohammed himself went as far as defining it to be even thinking about sex outside marriage.