Poll: 6÷2(1+2)

6/2(1+2) = ?

  • 9

    Votes: 516 68.9%
  • 1

    Votes: 233 31.1%

  • Total voters
    749
2 = 1

Let a = b, then a^2 = b^2.
This means a^2-b^2=0.

Factoring the left yields (a-b)(a+b)=0.

This means (a-b)(a+b)=a^2-b^2.

But since b=a, You can say that a^2-b^2 = a*b-b^2.

Therefore (a-b)(a+b)=a*b-b^2.

Factoring the right yields b*(a-b).

Therefore (a-b)(a+b)=b*(a-b).

Dividing by a-b gives a+b=b.

But since a=b, we have b+b=b, or 2b=b.

Dividing by b gives 2=1.
 
legitimately expand 3(2+1) and you'd arrive at the correct answer ;)
Nope, can't. I've tried. I understand the argument very well and for me it's not the divisor. Trouble is my old Engineers brain will always take the bracketed item as a single term. Using large equations a lot I tend to break them into usable chunks, yeah I can see the other result, but given a choice I see 1 (or dead people).
 
Last edited:
2 = 1

Let a = b, then a^2 = b^2.
This means a^2-b^2=0.

Factoring the left yields (a-b)(a+b)=0.

This means (a-b)(a+b)=a^2-b^2.

But since b=a, You can say that a^2-b^2 = a*b-b^2.

Therefore (a-b)(a+b)=a*b-b^2.

Factoring the right yields b*(a-b).

Therefore (a-b)(a+b)=b*(a-b).

Dividing by a-b gives a+b=b.

But since a=b, we have b+b=b, or 2b=b.

Dividing by b gives 2=1.

Dividing by zero fail :p (dividing through by a-b, when a = b!)

As for OP, I say 9. Brackets first, then multiplication/division sweeping from left to right.
 
2 = 1

Let a = b, then a^2 = b^2.
This means a^2-b^2=0.

Factoring the left yields (a-b)(a+b)=0.

This means (a-b)(a+b)=a^2-b^2.

But since b=a, You can say that a^2-b^2 = a*b-b^2.

Therefore (a-b)(a+b)=a*b-b^2.

Factoring the right yields b*(a-b).

Therefore (a-b)(a+b)=b*(a-b).

Dividing by a-b gives a+b=b. <-- And that's where you go wrong.

But since a=b, we have b+b=b, or 2b=b.

Dividing by b gives 2=1.

From where I wrote on your line of poop. if a = b
then a - b = 0
therefore when you divide by a-b you are dividing by 0, you can't do it.
Game set match. Thanks for coming.


Oh and Hi-Five Dave.
 
2 = 1

Let a = b, then a^2 = b^2.
This means a^2-b^2=0.

Factoring the left yields (a-b)(a+b)=0.

This means (a-b)(a+b)=a^2-b^2.

But since b=a, You can say that a^2-b^2 = a*b-b^2.

Therefore (a-b)(a+b)=a*b-b^2.

Factoring the right yields b*(a-b).

Therefore (a-b)(a+b)=b*(a-b).

Dividing by a-b gives a+b=b.

But since a=b, we have b+b=b, or 2b=b.

Dividing by b gives 2=1.

Algebra is all a lie. :P
 
Completely depends if you interpret its as:

6÷2*(1+2)

or

6/2(1+2)

Personally i would go for the former as theyve used '÷' sign rather than fraction but its all done to interpretation so its hard to argue either is wrong
 
Just a message for some of those who are poking fun at others.

There are two solutions, differing in interpretation of the ambiguous expression.

If you can't understand this then refrain from accusing others of lacking intelligence. Any spastic can apply some Kindergarten mathematical operating rule without really having a grasp on the subject. The argument being put fourth by those who are qualified to debate this is that in practical application of mathematics either interpretation may be more appropriate given the context of the problem at hand, although the expression is still irrefutably ambiguous.
 
Just a message for some of those who are poking fun at others.

There are two solutions, differing in interpretation of the ambiguous expression.

If you can't understand this then refrain from accusing others of lacking intelligence. Any spastic can apply some Kindergarten mathematical operating rule without really having a grasp on the subject. The argument being put fourth by those who are qualified to debate this is that in practical application of mathematics either interpretation may be more appropriate given the context of the problem at hand, although the expression is still irrefutably ambiguous.

/thread
 
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