I never claimed it was a football association, just that there was a British cup and as such, calling Scottish and English clubs British is correct.
I know what the anglo scottish cup is Castiel, I watched the 1980 final live, you dont have to cut and paste from the internet what it is.
And you are wrong, legally, any British player could play for any of the countries, the fact remains that they dont as it could and probably would lead to the breakdown of the four countries as individual countries with the fear that we would all be forced into having a single British team.
I cut and pasted (using quotes to illustrate this) the rules that FIFA and the respective Home Nations have codified regarding the eligibility of international players.
everything else was my own words, as well you know. So your attempt to discredit the post in that manner is really a wasted effort.
All clubs and participants agree to these rules as a requirement of their membership and as such they are as legally binding as any other agreed contract.
Just because you watched a game in 1980 doesn't automatically convey an intimate knowledge of the rules regarding eligibility of home nation players. Even if we accept that an inter-association cup infers proprietorship, as that cup has not existed since 1981 it is no longer valid as a current example. It would also infer that Maccabi Haifa F.C. is a European Club rather than strictly an Israeli one because they compete in the European League. You simply would not refer to them as such, they are an Israeli football team that are eligible to compete in European completion, the same as Celtic are a Scottish team that are eligible to compete in European competition.
The simple fact that Celtic have no official affiliation with a British association or competition means that they are not accurately a British Club, they are a Scottish one.
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