So why can't the police and CPS decide that there isn't evidence that a crime has been committed and it isn't in the public interest to prosecute?
Huh? I'm pretty sure that's exactly what the CPS can do.
So why can't the police and CPS decide that there isn't evidence that a crime has been committed and it isn't in the public interest to prosecute?
No. Have you?
So why can't the police and CPS decide that there isn't evidence that a crime has been committed and it isn't in the public interest to prosecute?
In these cases the police claim that they have to arrest everyone, even before it has been established that a crime has been committed.
The police can't decide what is reasonable force. A single policeman can't speculate as to how a person felt, how much stress they were under, how intimidating the attacker was. This is a job for the jury.
Besides... You want to take the decision out of the hands of 12 normal people and put it in the hands of 1 considerably more corruptible and potentially biased person? That sort of seems like a step backwards...
You have the legal system all backwards. Only a judge can decide that a crime has been committed. You arrest suspects on suspicion of committing a crime. Even at the point of arrest a policeman does not say that he believes a crime has been committed, only that he is suspicious that it has been.
If the police can't decide what is reasonable force, how is anyone else supposed to?
scorza said:We've already established that there's only a small probability that a jury will be made up of 12 normal people.
scorza said:Surely justice is better served the more people involved in the decision.
scorza said:At present for someone to be convicted in this sort of case, 12 random people have to decide the householder is guilty.
scorza said:I'm proposing that for someone to be found guilty in this sort of case, the police have to suspect them of a crime, the CPS has to agree with that based on the evidence, and 12 random people have to return a guilty verdict.
scorza said:This is what happens with every other sort of crime - why make this type of crime a special case?
So why do the police have to arrest someone in this type of case if he isn't suspicious that a crime has been committed?
So why do the police have to arrest someone in this type of case if he isn't suspicious that a crime has been committed?
...snip...
We're going round in circles, and frankly you're argument is so full of holes and contradictions it's laughable. In the interests of getting this thread off the front page, I'll agree with you, AcidHell and Tefal - the British Justice system is never wrong and will always be perfect![]()
Don't give a crap what the law is, should be or might end up being - if someone breaks into my house I will take a hammer to them until they leave or can't leave any more. Or, more likely, a sword (keep one under the bed - not even kidding).
Seriously, if it's my family's safety then I'll go to prison for it if that's the way it pans out. The assumption has to be that the intruder is there to do damage to either your property or family, or both. You can't assume that they're just going to run off if you ask nicely. I'll do whatever it takes to protect them. Obviously the intention is to get them to run off, but if they don't then so be it.
mothermachine said:What man won't do what it takes to protect his family and himself?
Parts 1 and 2 stand opposed. In part 2 you advocate what is already legal - protecting your family and yourself. In part 1 you advocate protecting your property with deadly force, which is not legal.
It is not possible to know if an intruder intends only to nick your stuff and run, without touching your family. Like I said, the assumption *must* be that they are capable and willing of harming your family, so you act on it. What are you gonna do? Ask them? "Hey! A**hat - You gonna go for the telly or have a pop at the wife too?".
Good for the home owner, anyone would have done the same.