DOC on insurance

Soldato
Joined
19 Jul 2005
Posts
7,069
Location
S. Yorkshire
My policy states I can drive a vehicle belonging to another person with their permission on my insurance.
It states nothing about the other vehicle needing to be insured by the owner, just that I can't own it and I need the owners permission.

If the other vehicle was owned by my wife (who is partially sighted and doesn't drive), does this mean I can drive it?

Logic says no, but I can't reason why given the wording in the policy.

Any thoughts?
 
Ok, the full situation is that I have a 2nd bike which is still taxed and MOT'd but I've transferred the insurance to my new bike.
I'm doing the old bike up and as part of that will want to ride it to test out the repairs. Dayinsure doesn't operate at the moment on bikes, they are summer only.

I was just pondering whether or not it was illegal to do what I suggested. As I said above, my gut feeling was that it wasn't kosher, but I wondered exactly why as the wording doesn't seem to exclude that option.
 
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