Firstly let me say that I'm aware of how focus microadjustment works and that you're not just "compensating for a poorly calibrated lens" but that there are tolerances in all lenses and bodies and you're just calibrating the combination of both.
That said, shouldn't the difference between two bodies always be consistent?
For example, I might calibrate a 100mm lens on one body and find it needs -3, then calibrate the same lens on another body and find it needs +1.
Surely, if I then proceed to calibrate other lenses on both bodies, the difference between the optimal settings should always be 4, so if a 50mm was +2 on the first body, I'd expect it to be +6 on the second.
Basically, in this scenario, the two bodies are +4 "out" in relation to each other.
That makes sense doesn't it? Basically I'm not seeing this - I've calibrated several lenses on two different bodies and, in some cases, the consistency just isn't there and the differences are all over the place. I can't figure out why and just wanted to check that there's no logic explanation for this and they should all differ by the same amount.
That said, shouldn't the difference between two bodies always be consistent?
For example, I might calibrate a 100mm lens on one body and find it needs -3, then calibrate the same lens on another body and find it needs +1.
Surely, if I then proceed to calibrate other lenses on both bodies, the difference between the optimal settings should always be 4, so if a 50mm was +2 on the first body, I'd expect it to be +6 on the second.
Basically, in this scenario, the two bodies are +4 "out" in relation to each other.
That makes sense doesn't it? Basically I'm not seeing this - I've calibrated several lenses on two different bodies and, in some cases, the consistency just isn't there and the differences are all over the place. I can't figure out why and just wanted to check that there's no logic explanation for this and they should all differ by the same amount.