ok today at work I asked how we calculate profit margins and what the retail price is I was told we take the cost price and divide by 48% cue me going 
so I did the calcs and sure enough out came our retail price simple enough but what I don't understand why you divde the the cost price by a percentage of itself why not just find out say 200% of the cost and use that as a retail price?
am I missing something or is this an accountancy trick of some kind?

so I did the calcs and sure enough out came our retail price simple enough but what I don't understand why you divde the the cost price by a percentage of itself why not just find out say 200% of the cost and use that as a retail price?
am I missing something or is this an accountancy trick of some kind?