I'm buying a flat and the solicitor has mentioned proof of funds and source of funds to be evidenced by a few months of savings statements and payslips, which can be done. Our deposit is about £30k in total, which is split between us.
7 years ago my grandmother died and when her share of her house was eventually sold some years later, I was left a share of it. This sat in a relative's bank account for some time because I wasn't old enough to have it yet. This was about £25k a few years ago.
Since then I have taken home at least 4-5x that amount in earnings, and so more than enough to cover my part of the deposit. My savings haven't grown 4-5x over though by any means, in fact, after some recent expenditure they wouldn't have appeared to have grown by much.
My argument is then that the £25k initially inherited by me isn't overly relevant at this point because that money would have been 'spent', given what I've earned (and contributed to my savings) since receiving it and what is left in my savings (after allowing for various withdrawals). For further perspective, my deposit is around 4 months of take-home salary, 6 months of savings let's say. Anything pay related can be evidenced by payslips.
Given this, my question is then will I be fine and justified in saying I've funded my deposit from savings and not inheritance?
I'm hoping given the deposit versus earnings and the deposit amount in the grand scheme of things (it's not a humongous six figure deposit), should mean I'm ok.
If I end up having to, evidencing the inheritance will be difficult because it never went directly into my bank account, it went into a relative's and sat there for a few years. So he'd no doubt have to dig up statements from years ago to show the amount going into his account (even longer ago) and then show it being transferred to me. As well as find the estate document/will (or whatever it is called).
So I'm trying to save myself and everybody else a headache if it can be avoided and I don't think I'm being unreasonable with my approach but would appreciate GD's wisdom.
7 years ago my grandmother died and when her share of her house was eventually sold some years later, I was left a share of it. This sat in a relative's bank account for some time because I wasn't old enough to have it yet. This was about £25k a few years ago.
Since then I have taken home at least 4-5x that amount in earnings, and so more than enough to cover my part of the deposit. My savings haven't grown 4-5x over though by any means, in fact, after some recent expenditure they wouldn't have appeared to have grown by much.
My argument is then that the £25k initially inherited by me isn't overly relevant at this point because that money would have been 'spent', given what I've earned (and contributed to my savings) since receiving it and what is left in my savings (after allowing for various withdrawals). For further perspective, my deposit is around 4 months of take-home salary, 6 months of savings let's say. Anything pay related can be evidenced by payslips.
Given this, my question is then will I be fine and justified in saying I've funded my deposit from savings and not inheritance?
I'm hoping given the deposit versus earnings and the deposit amount in the grand scheme of things (it's not a humongous six figure deposit), should mean I'm ok.
If I end up having to, evidencing the inheritance will be difficult because it never went directly into my bank account, it went into a relative's and sat there for a few years. So he'd no doubt have to dig up statements from years ago to show the amount going into his account (even longer ago) and then show it being transferred to me. As well as find the estate document/will (or whatever it is called).
So I'm trying to save myself and everybody else a headache if it can be avoided and I don't think I'm being unreasonable with my approach but would appreciate GD's wisdom.