Stats/Maths Question

Soldato
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14 Oct 2003
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Saw this on the train as part of an advert for "Dara O'Briains school of hard sums".

With the risk of looking an idiot. Is the answer to the following dead obvious?

If 70% of people on this train had beans this morning, 75% had eggs, 80% had sausages and 85% had toast, how many definitely had a full English breakfast?
And did any of them have beans down their shirt?

I thought the answer was 22.5 but that's probably completely wrong!
 
30 + 25 + 20 + 15 / 4

Or I thought 100 - the above additions and forget the division by 4.

Okay, well I'm not sure where you got that crom. Here was my logic.

If the probability of A happening is x and the probability of B happening is y. Then the probability of both A and B happening is x*y.
 
how many definitely had a full English breakfast?

Need to take this into mind when answering. You don't just multiply probabilities together.

Need to use basic set theory or conditional probabilities. Either will give the correct answer.
 
How many DEFINITELY had it is 10%, if we ignore that not all the ingredients are there.

EDIT: You assume the people who didn't have a certain item are separated as much as possible... so you can add together all the %s of people who didn't have each item, subtract from 100 and that'll give you the % that must have had all of them.
 
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Let N be the number of people. For each person, create 4 "holes" which can potentially receive eggs, bacon, toast or beans. That's 4N holes in total. The total amount of food distributed is

70N/100 + 75N/100 + 80N/100 + 85N/100 = 31N/10

(where obviously N is such that each of these are integers!). So the total number of empty "holes" will be

4N - 31N/10 = 9N/10

To get a lower bound on the number of people with full english (i.e. people with all four holes full), we should give only one of the 9N/10 to any player. There will always be N/10 players who can't receive a "hole". So the lower bound is N/10, or 10%.
 
How many DEFINITELY had it is 10%, if we ignore that not all the ingredients are there.

EDIT: You assume the people who didn't have a certain item are separated as much as possible... so you can add together all the %s of people who didn't have each item, subtract from 100 and that'll give you the % that must have had all of them.

Yep at least 10% definitely had it though.

10% isn't necessarily how many had it.
 
You don't know for definite how many had it.

As Dolly said, you have a lower bound.

You know that 10% definitely had it. It's possible, with other distributions of who had what, that up to 70% of people could have had it. But the question is how many definitely had it, and the answer to that is 10%.
 
You know that 10% definitely had it. It's possible, with other distributions of who had what, that up to 70% of people could have had it. But the question is how many definitely had it, and the answer to that is 10%.

When I was at university, such sloppy language will lose you marks.

At least 10% definitely had all ingredients.

Not 10% definitely had all ingredients.

edit:

of course wouldn't be answering in words which would help things.
 
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