Scotland take control of own taxes?
- Thread starter weescott
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I never said it was a Scottish problem I just said I can't believe it i alowed to persist but English apathy is almost certainly to blame. Most people in England I don't think could really care if Scotland is given independance and we have such a ridiculous lack of national pride that we probably wouldn't notice.
Soldato
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Pay for yourself and **** off, if you want our money let London rule you, it is simply more efficient.
I am from the North of England and we don't have our own parliament separate from the south nor do we need one. Population wise I doubt Scotland is much bigger.
Our paying for services such as free university and perscriptions simply fuels the hate we have for you.
I am from the North of England and we don't have our own parliament separate from the south nor do we need one. Population wise I doubt Scotland is much bigger.
Our paying for services such as free university and perscriptions simply fuels the hate we have for you.
Prescription charges, hospital parking, etc. are not valid examples. These are all issues voted upon solely by the Scottish Parliament. They have no impact upon English voters (except those who take advantage of them by moving to Scotland).
Yes, the powers of the assembly are quite far reaching. That's the whole point. Scotland gets to decide stuff by itself instead of being run by another country.
they are valid examples because Scotish MP's get to vote on the same issues in England. The decision in Scotland has no impact on those of us living in England in the same way that the decision at Westminster has no impact on those living inScotland so why would Scotish representatives get a vote?
I have no porblem with the powers of the Scotish assemly or with independance I'm objecting to Scotish representative MP's voting on issues at Westminster which no longer impact Scotland.
Have you even read what I said?
Scottish representatives get a vote because policy for England is still determined by the whole of Westminster. If you change the system so that no Scottish representatives can vote on issues only affecting English constituencies, it would mean that the current Prime Minister and Chancellor would be excluded from voting in Westminster (since both of them represent Scottish constituencies). I submit to you that this is untenable.
Currently, all English, Welsh, Northern Irish, and Scottish MPs are allowed to vote on issues within the remit of the Scottish Parliament. Westminster still retains the power to override or veto all decisions made by the Scottish Parliament. There has been no diminution of Westminster's authority over Scottish law.
I have. How do you feel about the role of the Welsh Assembly?
"we" ? Oddly enough one of my best mates is from there, so I doubt this "we" your refering to is exactly the majority. I've never had any problems with anyone from the north, quite the opposite! Same can be said for those from Devon/Cornwall too, great folks
Soldato
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This similarity is not relevent, you are forgetting Scotland is a seperate country and not a province of England. Where it not for the Highland clearances, it is estimated that the population of Scotland would be nearly 20 million.
Thanks. I have to confess that the point about the PM and Chancellor was borrowed from someone else.
At least one positive thing came out of the Highland Clearances then, could you imagine how awful Scotland would be with that number of people? Think of the South East but without the weather!
Why is it untenable for them not to vote on issues that don't effect there constituencies? The next government is likely to be lead by an MP elected to represent an English Constituency would you consider it fare, reasonable and sensible for him to have a vote on matters decided in the Scotish or Welsh assembly that wouldn't effect his constituents? I only propose that Scotish and Welsh MP's are not allowed to vote on issues at Westminster that would be decided by the regional assemblies for there constituents. National issues would still be voted on by the whole of parliment, it smacks of hipocracy for a Scotish or Welsh MP to be able vote in favour of prescription charges in England knowing full well there constituents won't be effected by the decision.
No theoretical diminuation, but in reality a lot of decisions are quite rightly taken in an autonomous way in the Scotish assembly without any vote at Westminster. All hell would break out if English representative MP's at Westminster started over ruling decisions made in the assembly, imagine if you will that Westminster anounced the reinstatment of tuition fees in Scotland?
I actually find the Welsh assembly totally pointless and voted against it in the reffurendum, not because I don't think Wales should have the right to a regional government but because the proposal as it stood was for a ridiculously expensive talking shop with no real powers. It is an organisation hamstrung by the limitations of it's initial remit and it's obsession with spending money on the Welsh language.
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Nice wording, however that is inaccurate.
Scottish law is not on the reserved matters list, and its independence from UK law was enshrined, if not encroached upon a little later, by the Act of Union.
Unless you wish to specify?
I've read a lot into the clearances and pacification of the highlands and never come across this figure, which is rather ambigious as the highlands struggled economically due to, well, having no infrastructure.
You have source for this?
As I understand the matter, it is still possible - in principle - for Westminster to overturn decisions taken in the Scottish Parliament.
Because that would rob their constituents of political representation in Westminster! How can you not see this as untenable?
OK, thanks for that.
And yes, I would consider it fair, reasonable and sensible for an MP in an English constituency to have a vote on matters decided in the Scottish Parliament and Welsh Assembly that do not affect his constituents. They already do this for Wales anyway, since the Welsh Assembly does not have authority equal to the Scottish parliament.
That is with regards to legislative power and acts passed by parliament. The possibility of the UK Parliament legislating on devolved matters does exist. A principle has, however, been established that the UK Parliament will not normally legislate in a devolved matter in Scotland without the agreement of the Scottish Parliament. The Scottish Parliament is able to agree the incorporation of legislative provisions affecting Scotland in devolved areas. This enables the Scottish Parliament to agree that the UK Parliament should legislate for Scotland on devolved matters where, for example, it is considered sensible and appropriate to put in place a single UK wide regime, or where the Scottish Parliament supports the proposed legislation but there is no Parliamentary time available because of separate Scottish priorities. This is nothing to do with Westminster overruling 'Scots Law', which pre-dates English law.
Because that would rob their constituents of political representation in Westminster! How can you not see this as untenable?
It's not robbing them of there representation in Westminster it is robbing them or representation in decisions which don't effect them which they shouldn't have any say in. They would be full represented in decisions which effected them as I said.
Thats just plain weird and I'm sure the majority of Scotish, Welsh and English people wouldn't agree.
That is for decisions that effect the whole of England and Wales not for things that are decided on in the Welsh assembly.