The point is, you can't prove otherwise. Nothing you have said so far has proven that this couldn't be the case. Which was the aim of the original philosophical point.
If you can come up with a good answer that proves it, there's a number of university philosophy departments that would love to hear from you!![]()
The tests are (read: have been) expanded across the entire spectrum of colours. To have a different combination of colours would be impossible without dissimilarities in test results.Yeah that doesn't make sense.
Let's say red and green were swapped. The comparison colour was purple. Naturally you'd say RED was more similar to purple than GREEN.
However, the fellow who saw red as green (and vice versa) wouldn't see purple as purple, either. He'd see a colour which was more similar to green (that he identified as red).
So he'd still say red was more similar to purple than green, even tho he was seeing what we'd call green, because his purple wouldn't be purple either.
So what similarities wouldn't be affected by this skewing of colours? What absolute abstract measures of colour would be unaffected?