I agree with the right to strike, and perhaps this initial judgement was wrong, but where do you draw the line on strike action as being reasonable? Surely there must be a line somewhere?
I don't think you can draw a line that would be relevant to strike action on the whole when applied to individual disputes. Each dispute needs to be evaluated on it's owm merit.
The current BA one for example is over the re-instatement of perks removed from those that striked over the now settled dispute. Good faith and a reasonable show of good will on the part of BA would have ensured that those perks were in fact re-instated as were people who were sacked (although I do not know the details on the reasons for the sackings beyond what I read today blaming it on the strike action they took).
Who is being unreasonable now, the Union who are faced with some of it's members being rewarded for not going on strike, or asking the company to treat all it's employees the same and putting the dispute behind them as it is now settled or BA management, namely Willie Walsh who is being vindictive in the extreme.
Different acts entirely, so an entirely irrelevant comparison.
No really irrelevent to the example, both are in essence ballots and are conducted in a similar fashion. Different yes, but to illustrate the ridiculous nature of the technicality ruling, apt.

