Whats the law on people "getting Half" in a seperation?

Soldato
Joined
12 Dec 2002
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2,951
Say you had owned a house outright no mortgage etc..., then you get with a girl and eventualy get married. Would she be entitled to any of your property?? If so is there a way of protecting against this?
 
Prety sure they are not legally binding in the uk though

I'm pretty sure they are, they just aren't as stupid as the US's 'you get 1%' deals

I found a few things which people in the UK potentially have to adhere to

* Provision must be made for children
* Both parties should have taken independent legal advice
* The agreement must not be profoundly unjust
* Full financial disclosure must have been made
* The agreement must have been drawn up at least 21 days prior to the marriage
 
The Supreme Court ruled in October that prenups are now binding in England and Wales. Radmacher (formerly Granatino) v
Granatino is the particular case.
 
What about if you never get married?

Also how is it possible that anyone can claim a stake in something which someone else owned for a while before any relations started??
 
I'm pretty sure they are, they just aren't as stupid as the US's 'you get 1%' deals

I found a few things which people in the UK potentially have to adhere to

* Provision must be made for children
* Both parties should have taken independent legal advice
* The agreement must not be profoundly unjust
* Full financial disclosure must have been made
* The agreement must have been drawn up at least 21 days prior to the marriage

That would proabbly explaining it, just remember talking to someone *****ing about how his has meant nothing
 
What about if you never get married?

Also how is it possible that anyone can claim a stake in something which someone else owned for a while before any relations started??

There are provisions within the law (civil law) that provide the Courts with the ability to divvy up properties/money for a couple that have been in a serious relationship. Though, it's much harder to do this as there's nothing official stating their relationship.
 
if you not married then no, if married then yes.

she would be considered if she paid any money towards purchase or upkeep mind you/

I learned this fact when I made my will. If said person decided to want a share of your stuff after you snuffed it and you werent married. Stuff like proving they contributed to living costs could entitle them to a share of your estate.

The example my solicitor used was even stuff like buying groceries..
 
So, even if you met a girl/guy and you owned a house outright (your name solely on the deeds) prior to any relationship, then after a time they become entitled to some of your property? crazy crazy world!

I learned this fact when I made my will. If said person decided to want a share of your stuff after you snuffed it and you werent married. Stuff like proving they contributed to living costs could entitle them to a share of your estate.

The example my solicitor used was even stuff like buying groceries..

What about seperation, not death?
 
I learned this fact when I made my will. If said person decided to want a share of your stuff after you snuffed it and you werent married. Stuff like proving they contributed to living costs could entitle them to a share of your estate.

The example my solicitor used was even stuff like buying groceries..

Me and the gf live in a house together, which I pay 100% upkeep for. If we were then to split grocery shopping, I'd lose 50% of my investment if things go bad and she was so inclined?

I've heard this before, but it honestly doesn't make sense to me that that'd be considered fair.
 
I've heard this before, but it honestly doesn't make sense to me that that'd be considered fair.

It's more fair than you keep everything even though she's lived there and supported you, relationships aren't one way and if they are then frankly you shouldn't live with a partner to begin with :p
 
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