Isn't this a vicious circle? Train companies have announced that they're putting up prices by 5.9% on average, because inflation is running at 5.1%. However, surely a contribution to that inflationary figure, are the train price increases from last year?
I do think that some companies use inflation (RPI/CPI) as an excuse for putting up prices where there has been no corresponding increase in their direct or indirect costs.
I do think that some companies use inflation (RPI/CPI) as an excuse for putting up prices where there has been no corresponding increase in their direct or indirect costs.