That's called VAT.
Edit: Though technically that's the value of the good where sold in the EU.
Do you realise how complex that would be for a multinational company? Hell, even a small company selling abroad.
Can you imagine Coca Cola working out how much tax they owed each country.
Yes. Because law comes into force without politics. Point or pedantry?It's an international law question, really. If someone really wants to look at the OECD model tax guidelines, or all of the UK's taxation treaties with other states (or any state with any other state), they can go crazy,
http://www.hmrc.gov.uk/taxtreaties/in-force/index.htm
Who created the bilateral tax treaties?Well, you can reduce everything down to politics... or at least a lot... which arguably means reducing stuff that far is pointless. Whereas tax is very much an international law issue/that's the most specific crux of the whole tax issue. International tax, which is what all this transfer pricing malarkey is about, is basically to do with what all the different bilateral tax treaties result in - and that's just international law.
And when people say it's just politics, many people (and not necessarily you from what you said... just in general) spack out and say Westminster aren't doing enough to combat tax avoidance, blah blah blah... but it's not a 'normal politics' issue... it's an international law issue which Westminster basically can't do anything about!
That's called VAT.
Edit: Though technically that's the value of the good where sold in the EU.
Don't they do exactly that now, work out what though owe in each country?
VAT IS a tax on the value of the goods. Fundamentally all the taxes a company pays come from their consumers, nobody else is going to give them the money!VAT is always passed on to the consumer of the end goods / services, so not sure I follow you!