So it turns out my boss only has his best interests at heart (shock, horror
).
A little background, I work in a seasonal town for a business that relies on tourism from Easter through to October. A colleague of mine has recently handed in his notice after 7 years service and my boss has hit him with a bill for holiday pay.
Turns out our contracts are set in such a way that we owe him money if we leave during the busy period. Now I understand he has the right to recover any overpaid wages but can he legally do so if he places constraints on our holiday that we have little to no control over?
I understand the clause below is pretty standard for low income postions:
9.3 The holiday year is the calender year from 1st of October to 30th September and you should take your holidays during this period. You will not be permitted to carry over unused holiday entitlement into a following year except with express written consent of the employer. You will not be entitled to to payment for any unused holiday entitlement.
But, when you combine that with the fact our contracts run from the 1st of march to the end of February each year and this piece below:
9.4 Due to the seasonal nature of the business, holidays can only be taken during the period mid October to mid March.
It means any holiday we don't take we lose, but if we take a full years entitlement and leave mid season we owe him money.
I understand this can be avoided by not taking holiday but that seems a little unfair when you've worked 6 days a week for 7 months solid. But what gets me is each year he tells us we have 28 days holiday we have to take, if we don't book it he'll lump a day in here or there on our days off to make sure we use our entitlement!
So I guess what I'm asking here is can he legally peruse us for holiday pay if he has been willfully lying to staff about how much holiday we have, during the period we're allowed to take it and booking it for us if we don't take it?

A little background, I work in a seasonal town for a business that relies on tourism from Easter through to October. A colleague of mine has recently handed in his notice after 7 years service and my boss has hit him with a bill for holiday pay.
Turns out our contracts are set in such a way that we owe him money if we leave during the busy period. Now I understand he has the right to recover any overpaid wages but can he legally do so if he places constraints on our holiday that we have little to no control over?
I understand the clause below is pretty standard for low income postions:
9.3 The holiday year is the calender year from 1st of October to 30th September and you should take your holidays during this period. You will not be permitted to carry over unused holiday entitlement into a following year except with express written consent of the employer. You will not be entitled to to payment for any unused holiday entitlement.
But, when you combine that with the fact our contracts run from the 1st of march to the end of February each year and this piece below:
9.4 Due to the seasonal nature of the business, holidays can only be taken during the period mid October to mid March.
It means any holiday we don't take we lose, but if we take a full years entitlement and leave mid season we owe him money.
I understand this can be avoided by not taking holiday but that seems a little unfair when you've worked 6 days a week for 7 months solid. But what gets me is each year he tells us we have 28 days holiday we have to take, if we don't book it he'll lump a day in here or there on our days off to make sure we use our entitlement!

So I guess what I'm asking here is can he legally peruse us for holiday pay if he has been willfully lying to staff about how much holiday we have, during the period we're allowed to take it and booking it for us if we don't take it?
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