Tefal has stated this in other threads and I tend to agree:
http://forums.overclockers.co.uk/showpost.php?p=27074027&postcount=113
So a man can be held liable for their drunken actions (getting consent and thinking its "viable" due to drunkenness of both parties) but a woman cannot in these cases?
no your wrong its not the woman is the victim unless consent is given the woman is the victim EVEN IF consent is given.
an intoxicated woman cannot legally consent.
but an intoxicated man legally must get consent and then determine if that consent is acceptable or if it is not and if he decides it is acceptable but the next day the woman decides to change her mind after the fact then he is still guilty as he did not have consent.
http://forums.overclockers.co.uk/showpost.php?p=27074027&postcount=113
So a man can be held liable for their drunken actions (getting consent and thinking its "viable" due to drunkenness of both parties) but a woman cannot in these cases?

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