can someone explain this to me

This reminds me of when I used to pay £1 for the first game of pool with my friend at University and then because he didn't have any change he would proceed to go to the bar, get change, give me £1 and then pay for the next game. :p
 
I usually get around these embarrassing encounters by paying for all my goods in sexual favours / Hand made Christmas cards
 
Kosmiche said:
Is it wrong to sell a item to a shop then buy something in the shop with that money?

Imagine you sell cd's to the total of £55 to a record shop then you buy some records using that £55.

So you buy two records for £40, I think it was bad of me because the shop made a loss.

Yeah you can tell I was poor at maths in school.

Thanks..
Click to expand...

Wait, so you:

1) Sold some CDs for £55 to the shop

- You have £55 cash
- Shop has £82.50* worth of CDs - £55 cash = £27.50 profit

2) Bought 2 records for £40

- You have 2 records and £15 cash
- Shop has -2 records worth ~£27* + £40 cash = £13 profit

So shop has £27.50 + £13 profit = £40.50 total

And you feel bad about it?


* Rough assumption of 50% markup

Edit:

Kosmiche said:
I think the shop has a loss of £15
Click to expand...
With your transactions taken in isolation, yes, they have a loss of £15.

However they do also now have your CDs which are worth at least £55!
 
Small shops are struggling a lot these days, especially record stores, so taking advantage like this is pretty damn shameful, OP. People these days only care about themselves. It's disgusting.
 
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