Any legal folks on here? Academic question!

Domo

Domo

Domo

Soldato
Joined
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Surrey, UK
Like many taking up courses and new hobbies during lockdown, my other half has decided to look at becoming a legal secretary. Long story short she was a graphics illustrator (3DMax/CAD and all that cool stuff) over 10 years ago but gave it up to bring up our daughter. She doesn't want to go back to all that.

Anyway, enough of the context! We're both really stumped on this question.

Which if the following statements is incorrect:

1. A bill becomes law when it passes its 3rd reading in the House of Commons (we think it's this because nothing becomes law until it receives royal assent. However, the ambiguous part is technically that does actually take place after the third reading)

2. The House of Commons cannot defeat a bill once it has been passed by the House of Lords

3. When a bill receives royal accent it becomes statute.

4. A bill goes through 8 stages before coming law

Any help would be greatly appreciated (and mean I can get on with my work!). :o
 
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The question is 'which is incorrect?' So I'd have assumed things don't become statue until receiving royal assent.
 
Domo said:
The question is 'which is incorrect?' So I'd have assumed things don't become statue until receiving royal assent.
Click to expand...

If you are asking which is the 'most' correct then it's 3:

A bill is a proposal of law.

Once the bill has passed all relevant stages and it is accepted by both Houses, it is then passed to the Monarch for royal assent. Once this has been given, the bill becomes an Act of Parliament and thus law.

If you are asking which is incorrect, there can't be a single answer.

Q1: 1. A bill becomes law when it passes its 3rd reading in the House of Commons
Issue - Depends where it started deems where it goes next, but regardless it goes to the consideration of amendments stage (ping pong) (at either house) prior to royal assent (which makes it law).
Therefore incorrect.

Q2: 2. The House of Commons cannot defeat a bill once it has been passed by the House of Lords
Issue - If a bill is started in the Lords, and agreed, it then goes to the Commons to accept or not, so yes they can overrule it. Neither house works alone when passing law.
Therefore incorrect.

Q3 - 3. When a bill receives royal accent it becomes statute.
As above.
Therefore correct.

Q4 - 4. A bill goes through 8 stages before coming law
Commons -> Law
Commons: 1st reading, 2nd reading, committee, report, third reading. Lords: 1st, 2nd, committee, report, third. Ping Pong, Assent. = 12 stages.
Therefore incorrect.
 
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Sorry folks. The question is which is incorrect (original post now edited). Now you will probably understand why we're so stuck! You're only allowed one answer.
 
Q1 - Surely it needs to be reviewed by the House of Lords before it becomes law, not just passing by the HoC?

Pure guess though.
 
Domo said:
The question is 'which is incorrect?' So I'd have assumed things don't become statue until receiving royal assent.
Click to expand...

I meant 3 is correct, didn't read properly in that case 2 is incorrect maybe others also. I don't think there are 8 stages to put bill into law.
 
Thanks for your help guys. FYI the answer was 1 according to the Institute of Legal Secretaries and PAs.
 
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