Basically he's saying the value of the assets we've frozen is higher than the value of the assets the EU has frozen. Of course what he isn't saying is that they have frozen like 20x as many assets as we have, our £/$/€ value is just higher because there was more dodgy Russian money in London than the was in the EU which gave us an advantage in seizing it.I know what the **** is trying to express, but I'd rationally like an explanation for what it means, rather than that gimpy ***** bar chart which is no doubt inaccurate, or has a very dodgy underlying * which is absent from it.