Yes you do the brackets first, but you do the contents of the brackets first, then "remove" the brackets and carry on applying BODMAS.
So it becomes,
6 / 2 * (1 + 2)
6 / 2 * (3)
6 / 2 * 3
3 * 3
9.
Bidmas is clearly fallible if people are justifying an answer of nine with it.
6÷2(1+2)
6 is ONE term.
2(1+2) is ANOTHER term.
In order to achieve a result of 9 you would need:
6(1+2)÷2
It is entirely possible this problem was introduced to highlight the flaws of the BIDMAS rule.
You're reading it as
6÷(2(1+2))
That second set of brackets isn't given. It isn't one term.
I find it easiest to explain by introducing X into the equation
6÷2(1+2) = X
2(1+2) = 6X
2+4 = 6X
6 = 6X
1 = X
It has been a long long time since i've ever done any math though.
A* at GCSE would suggest i wasn't exactly talking out my arse btw 'Haircut'.
when you dont know... put in variables so you dont get confuse with numbers or misdirection with poor logic...
6/x(1+2) y/x(a+b) where a,b are constants so a,b = 1,2 respectively
thefore...
y/x(1+2) = y/x(3) = y/3x
You're reading it as
6÷(2(1+2))
That second set of brackets isn't given. It isn't one term.
I find it easiest to explain by introducing X into the equation
6÷2(1+2) = X
2(1+2) = 6X
That would only be required to justify the elementary rules of BODMAS.
2(1+2) is one term. (2(1+2)) is not required.
6÷2(1+2) = X
6 = 2(1+2)X
6 / 2 = (1+2)X
3 = 3X
1 = X
I personally would have plumped for 1.
Perhaps my maths skills are failing terribly, but I'm a bit confused, how does multiplying (6÷2(1+2)) by 6 equal 2(1+2)![]()