Classical Conditioning

[Malakite]

Ok so I have been thinking.

Most people will be aware of classical conditioning, Pavlov’s dogs and all that.
Basically is eliciting a physiological response from external stimuli.

E.g. Pavlov rang a bell every time he fed his dogs. Eventually the food was no longer needed; just ringing the bell would be enough to cause the dogs to have a physical response (salivating)

So why would this approach not be possible with drugs. So causing the release of serotonin and dopamine in your brain associated with ecstasy, the increased bloods flow, heart rate etc.

Now if you were to condition this response to say a piece of music would it be possible to experience a physical response similar to a 'high'?

Putting aside the prospect of a free high, uses such as rehab for addiction may be possible. Would a heroin addict's pain coming off the drug be lessened if they could be conditioned to trick their body into feeling as if they had taken the drug without actually taking it?

 

[Malakite]

pavlov's dog was more a case that the dog associated the sound of the bell with getting fed, then when he rang the bell, the dogs would think they were going to get fed, they wouldn't instantly *be* fed/full

Yeah it was not that the dogs would think themselves full or fed etc but that their body's would respond to the bell as if it were another stimuli, they would salivate even though there was no food. They would not get the effects of food, feel full , sustinence etc.

with drugs would your body not associate the music with the physical response (release of chemicals from the brain)