So the BBC posted some footage on Twitter today of a fancy swimming pool at a London development:
Picture here:
Now the HuffPo points out that some poorer people living in the social housing part of the development don't have access to it:
https://www.huffingtonpost.co.uk/entry/london-floating-pool-nine-elms_uk_60b61404e4b06da8bd7b3914
This is like the previous fuss made over two adjacent developments and a children's play area - In that case IIRC something was worked out, in other cases though when you're talking about expensive facilities then it doesn't necessarily seem feasible.
I'm curious about what people's thoughts are and whether they differ based on proximity - consider a developer wants to build 350 luxury flats with a posh lobby, concierge, private cinema, swimming pool, gym, business centre, rooftop terrace, rooftop resident's lounge, kids play area etc.. to be privately managed by a management company in return for a fat service charge. The developer also needs to build say 150 social housing flats - for a housing association to manage and rent at affordable rates or sell on shared ownership basis.
Scenario 1: All the flats are in the same massive tower block and the developer has decided to create a separate entrance (poor door) for the social housing flats vs a posh lobby and access to all the facilities for the private flats.
Scenario 2: The flats are built on the same site but in different blocks two private blocks with access to the facilities and one social housing block without access to the facilities.
Scenario 3: The private flats are built on one site and the social housing flats are built on another site 2 kilometres away in the same borough, the only thing linking them is the fact they're being built by the same developer and the social housing was a requirement by the borough council to get planning permission for the private housing.
Service charges cost the private residents say £6000 a year each on average to maintain the fancy facilities.
In all of the above scenarios, the private flats and social housing flats are separated, managed by different entities but the proximity differs - does that change your view re: whether the residents of the social housing are entitled to the facilities in the private housing?
Who should pay if the social housing residents are allowed access to the facilities? Are they just subsidised by an effective tax on the private residents? Do they get to cherry-pick and demand they be allowed to pay for say access to the pool/gym only for some low fee but the rest of the overall costs racked up by the private development they want nothing to do with?
Picture here:
Now the HuffPo points out that some poorer people living in the social housing part of the development don't have access to it:
https://www.huffingtonpost.co.uk/entry/london-floating-pool-nine-elms_uk_60b61404e4b06da8bd7b3914
This is like the previous fuss made over two adjacent developments and a children's play area - In that case IIRC something was worked out, in other cases though when you're talking about expensive facilities then it doesn't necessarily seem feasible.
I'm curious about what people's thoughts are and whether they differ based on proximity - consider a developer wants to build 350 luxury flats with a posh lobby, concierge, private cinema, swimming pool, gym, business centre, rooftop terrace, rooftop resident's lounge, kids play area etc.. to be privately managed by a management company in return for a fat service charge. The developer also needs to build say 150 social housing flats - for a housing association to manage and rent at affordable rates or sell on shared ownership basis.
Scenario 1: All the flats are in the same massive tower block and the developer has decided to create a separate entrance (poor door) for the social housing flats vs a posh lobby and access to all the facilities for the private flats.
Scenario 2: The flats are built on the same site but in different blocks two private blocks with access to the facilities and one social housing block without access to the facilities.
Scenario 3: The private flats are built on one site and the social housing flats are built on another site 2 kilometres away in the same borough, the only thing linking them is the fact they're being built by the same developer and the social housing was a requirement by the borough council to get planning permission for the private housing.
Service charges cost the private residents say £6000 a year each on average to maintain the fancy facilities.
In all of the above scenarios, the private flats and social housing flats are separated, managed by different entities but the proximity differs - does that change your view re: whether the residents of the social housing are entitled to the facilities in the private housing?
Who should pay if the social housing residents are allowed access to the facilities? Are they just subsidised by an effective tax on the private residents? Do they get to cherry-pick and demand they be allowed to pay for say access to the pool/gym only for some low fee but the rest of the overall costs racked up by the private development they want nothing to do with?