How does alcohol work?

Dan Dan · 9 Sep 2010 at 18:58

I dont mean in the conventional sense.... i.e. you drink and you get drunk then try hump a lamp post and end up waking up in a bush covered in kebab.

I mean with regards to %...

If I drink a shot of 40% vodka I know that isnt equal to drinking 8 pints of 5% beer but how does it convert?

does

8 pints of beer = 1 pint of vodka?

does

1 pint of vodka = the lamp post/bush story?

Lakeland · 9 Sep 2010 at 19:00

% is simply the % of "alcohol" in the drink itself, is that what you mean?

tr1cky · 9 Sep 2010 at 19:04

It done in units.. for examples a pint is around 2.5 units and a shot of vodka would be 1 unit.

PapaLazaru · 9 Sep 2010 at 19:07

Standard bottle of 40% vodka (70cl) contains 250ml of alcohol.

One pint of 5% beer contains 28.4ml of alcohol.

So one bottle of vodka equates to around 8.8 pints of beer.

Drinking the vodka neat will no doubt get you more drunk as it is less diluted. But if it is good vodka, you will have less of a hangover the next day as it is purer.

jp_bl_68 · 9 Sep 2010 at 19:08

Dan Dan said:
If I drink a shot of 40% vodka I know that isnt equal to drinking 8 pints of 5% beer but how does it convert?

1x45ml shot 40% vodka =/= 8x568ml glasses of 5% beer

Shouldn't it be:

1x45ml shot 40% vodka = 8x45ml shots of 5% beer :confused:

But it won't effect you in the same way.

Bennie-Mac · 9 Sep 2010 at 19:09

Vodka - 35ml at 40% proof means there is 14ml of alcohol.

Beer - 568ml at 5% proof means there is 28.4ml of alcohol.

So 2 shots of vodka is roughly the equivalent of 1 pint of beer.

A pint of vodka has 227.2ml of alcohol so would be the equivalent of 8 pints of beer.

Glaucus · 9 Sep 2010 at 19:10

except it's volume not proof.

Vodka is ~40%ABV or ~80% proof

Dan Dan · 9 Sep 2010 at 19:11

Lakeland said:
% is simply the % of "alcohol" in the drink itself, is that what you mean?

So 8 pints of 5% alcohol does equal 1 pint of 40% vodka? Because 40% of what I have drunk (if I drink either of them) is alcohol.

Gavin · 9 Sep 2010 at 19:12

I could drink 8 pints of lager but certainly not a bottle of a vodka.

Glaucus · 9 Sep 2010 at 19:13

Dan Dan said:
Because 40% of what I have drunk (if I drink either of them) is alcohol.

No.

you would have drunken 1pint of vodka at 40% and 8pints of beer at 5%.

So the amounts are the same.

Dan Dan · 9 Sep 2010 at 19:16

jp_bl_68 said:
Shouldn't it be

1x45ml shot 40% vodka = 8x45ml shots of 5% beer

But it won't effect you in the same way.

Also 1 of my thoughts...

Why does it not affect you in the same way?

jp_bl_68 · 9 Sep 2010 at 19:19

It's partly to do with volume and it's partly to do with concentration, I think.

Glaucus · 9 Sep 2010 at 19:19

Dan Dan said:
Also 1 of my thoughts...

Why does it not affect you in the same way?

Mainly because you can drink vodka faster.
Dilute vodka to 5% with a mixer and drink it slower like you would beer and there would be little difference.

what's a bottle of vodka, 12 doubles and mixers? it's not as much as you think when you look at it that way.

Participant · 9 Sep 2010 at 19:43

Is that you mattheman?

Abraham · 9 Sep 2010 at 19:47

Dan Dan said:
So 8 pints of 5% alcohol does equal 1 pint of 40% vodka? Because 40% of what I have drunk (if I drink either of them) is alcohol.

This is strictly not intended as a personal attack, but you sir, are an idiot.

Dan Dan · 9 Sep 2010 at 19:49

So if I have 8 pints of lager and 8 pints of vodka with a mixer (1 eighth of vodka in each) and drunk them at them same rate I would be affected in the same way from both?

Serpantine · 9 Sep 2010 at 20:12

Dan Dan said:
So if I have 8 pints of lager and 8 pints of vodka with a mixer (1 eighth of vodka in each) and drunk them at them same rate I would be affected in the same way from both?

To a degree, yes - you have to consider what is actually in beer however it will make you feel more bloated possibly more sick perhaps and most probably more hungover in the morning.

Disco Boy · 9 Sep 2010 at 20:18

The GCSE-level chemistry fail is strong in this thread...

Vonhelmet · 9 Sep 2010 at 20:52

Robbie G said:
Is that you mattheman?

Haha, it's bread all over again! Exactly what I was thinking!

Vonhelmet · 9 Sep 2010 at 20:54

Abraham said:
This is strictly not intended as a personal attack, but you sir, are an idiot.

Why? He's right, though he's worded it incorrectly, as it's not 40% of what he's drunk, but 40% of a pint. Unless you were mocking him because it was such a struggle to reach such an obvious conclusion.

8*5%=0.4pt alcohol
1*40%=0.4pt alcohol

One way or another, though, lots of people in this thread suck at maths.