The GCSE-level chemistry fail is strong in this thread...
Correct them then, with content. Or just use pre-school insults.
The GCSE-level chemistry fail is strong in this thread...
Why? He's right, though he's worded it incorrectly, as it's not 40% of what he's drunk, but 40% of a pint. Unless you were mocking him because it was such a struggle to reach such an obvious conclusion.
8*5%=0.4pt alcohol
1*40%=0.4pt alcohol
One way or another, though, lots of people in this thread suck at maths.
Correct them then, with content. Or just use pre-school insults.
So 8 pints of 5% alcohol does equal 1 pint of 40% vodka? Because 40% of what I have drunk (if I drink either of them) is alcohol.
He's worded it incorrectly, so that it's entirely wrong. He's got the 8 pints of 5% = 1 pint of 40%, that's fine. You can't just place your own explanation for what he could have meant by the latter bit. 40% of 8 pints of 5% beer is 3.2 pints of 5% beer, not 40% of a pint of 100% alcohol.Why? He's right, though he's worded it incorrectly, as it's not 40% of what he's drunk, but 40% of a pint. Unless you were mocking him because it was such a struggle to reach such an obvious conclusion.
8*5%=0.4pt alcohol
1*40%=0.4pt alcohol
One way or another, though, lots of people in this thread suck at maths.
They seem to have managed by themselves, eventually. It's quite simple really:
Vodka is 40% alcohol by volume. There is 25ml in a shot of vodka
0.40 x 25ml = 10ml alcohol
Beer, we'll say, is 4.5% alcohol by volume. 1 pint = 568ml.
0.045 x 568 = 25.56ml alcohol
So a pint of strong beer contains the same amount of alcohol as two and a half shots of vodka.