How would one show that e^pi is greater than pi^e without using a calculator?

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A mate said he was asked this at interview for Maths at Oxford. Sorry it's not a typical GD tea-time query, but there are a few mathmos on here that I thought could help.
 
Unless I'm missing something (only doing GCSE maths currently), e stands for any number, correct?

say e = 2

2^pi = 8.82497783
pi^2 = 9.8696044

Which means that either your statement is incorrect, or that I do not know what e is :P
 
Hxc said:
Unless I'm missing something (only doing GCSE maths currently), e stands for any number, correct?

say e = 2

2^pi = 8.82497783
pi^2 = 9.8696044

Which means that either your statement is incorrect, or that I do not know what e is :P
It is better to remain silent and be thought a fool than to open one's mouth and remove all doubt.
 
e is the base for a natural logarithm (log base e or ln)

According to Wikipedia, e to 20 decimal places (it's irrational) is 2.71828182845904523536.

I just tried to prove this, but actually, I showed that e^pi is less than pi^e, so I seemed to have failed. :(
 
Consider f(x) = ln(x) / x. f'(x) = (1 - ln x) / x^2. So f'(x) < 0 for x > e, and so f(e) > f(pi).

So ln(e)/e > ln(pi) / pi. So pi ln(e) > e ln pi. Apply exp to both sides to get e^pi > pi ^ e.
 
DaveF said:
Consider f(x) = ln(x) / x. f'(x) = (1 - ln x) / x^2. So f'(x) < 0 for x > e, and so f(e) > f(pi).

So ln(e)/e > ln(pi) / pi. So pi ln(e) > e ln pi. Apply exp to both sides to get e^pi > pi ^ e.


Hmmm,

I have a feeling there may be something more elegant.

IF this was a interview question, then they can't expect ppl to do that on the spot, needs a pen and paper.

My first instinct is to take logs of both sides.

but then showing pi > e ln pi isn't straight forward as I thought

sid
 
sid said:
I have a feeling there may be something more elegant.

IF this was a interview question, then they can't expect ppl to do that on the spot, needs a pen and paper.

I had interviews for Engineering at both Cambridge and Oxford and was asked similar problem solving questions, you're allowed a pen and paper. :p The interviews aren't "sit on a chair in the middle of a room and be interrogated," you usually sit down at a table with one or two people and go through some questions.
 
Calder said:
I had interviews for Engineering at both Cambridge and Oxford and was asked similar problem solving questions, you're allowed a pen and paper. :p The interviews aren't "sit on a chair in the middle of a room and be interrogated," you usually sit down at a table with one or two people and go through some questions.


Lol I've been to one of these interview as well :P

They make you think outside the box, something clearly I wasn't very good at :-(

Back to the problem, I think thats a toughie without perhaps a hint.

sid
 
Sleepy said:
some faggot comment

what did you hope to achieve from expressing such faggotry. I've got a quote for you.

It is better to remain silent and be thought a fool than to open one's mouth and remove all doubt.

see what I did there?

He tried to help, he was wrong, what's the big deal?
 
Ah sorry folks, was thinking e was an odd letter to use :P

Also that it was a little simple, but hey, I guessed :o
 
Sounds quite tricky, especially since it seems kind of obvious. But it being obvious doesn't count as proof.
 
not done by me but:

Consider the function f(x) = e^x - x^e. Its derivative is

f'(x) = e^x - e*x^(e-1)
f'(x) = 0 will have at most two solutions since f'(x) = 0 implies

e^x = e*x^(e-1)

and it is easily seen that an exponential function and a power
function have at most two points of intersection. Observe that
f'(1) = 0 and f'(e) = 0, so x = 1 and x = e are the two points of
intersection.

In general, an exponential function will grow to infinity faster than
a power function, so f'(x) >= 0 for x > e. This means that f is an
increasing function when x > e. Also notice that f(e) = 0. Thus,
since Pi > e and f is increasing when x > e, we have f(Pi) > 0.

Thus f(Pi) = e^Pi - Pi^e > 0. This implies that e^Pi is greater than
Pi^e.
 
sid said:
Back to the problem, I think thats a toughie without perhaps a hint.
Not that tough (though of course they'll give you hints as necessary).

As you say, an obvous step is to take logs, so you're comparing

pi with e ln pi. So you want to compare e with pi / ln pi.

At which point looking at f(x) = ln(x)/x isn't that big a leap.

Then f(x) has a maximum at x = e, where f(x) = 1/e. So 1/e < ln pi / pi, so e > pi / ln pi.

The answer I gave is with "benefit of hindsight" to make it shorter, but the above shows how you might find it yourself.
 
Psyk said:
Sounds quite tricky, especially since it seems kind of obvious. But it being obvious doesn't count as proof.

How is it obvious? (Short of spending quite a while working out upper and lower bounds in your head on what each answer can be)
 
DaveF said:
Not that tough (though of course they'll give you hints as necessary).

As you say, an obvous step is to take logs, so you're comparing

pi with e ln pi. So you want to compare e with pi / ln pi.

At which point looking at f(x) = ln(x)/x isn't that big a leap.

Then f(x) has a maximum at x = e, where f(x) = 1/e. So 1/e < ln pi / pi, so e > pi / ln pi.

The answer I gave is with "benefit of hindsight" to make it shorter, but the above shows how you might find it yourself.

Your second line is very clever, I wouldn't have thought of that lol.

I can think maths, I guess thats how I ended up doing physics in some ways, its easier to think about.

BTW Its obvious because Exponentials pwn Polynomials lol

sid
 
PinkPig said:
How is it obvious? (Short of spending quite a while working out upper and lower bounds in your head on what each answer can be)
Well when you raise to a power your answer grows exponentially. Since pi is greater than e, but not by a huge amount, you'd expect e^pi to bigger.

But I've just realised this reasoning is even more crap than I thought it was since e and pi are too small for it to be as significant as I originally thought. Yeah so just ignore me, I don't know what I'm on about.
 
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