Permabanned
- Joined
- 28 Dec 2009
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Is this the part where you try to debate semantics because you have no valid arguments to justify your position?.
What is a rate set by a combination of market forces & additional costs by the government called then?, the government does't set the rate for entire good, but it does set part of the cost via wage laws & environmental clean-up costs.
As the government applies tax to nearly everything that adds on to the market rate at a fixed amount. It doesn't mean that it is no longer the market rate if government interference has caused it to increase or decrease. It is only no longer the market rate when the government sets it directly, with price controls or wage controls or minimum wage etc.
You said: has a hand in setting that market rate.
The government does not have a hand in setting the market rate in that sense. It adds on to the market rate with taxes or regulations but when it dictates the rate to the market directly, by removing any influence the natural market forces have over setting that rate, then it is no longer the market rate, it becomes the rate set by the government.