Maths question - Acceleration/freefall

Absolutely, but the original post said no air resistance.

If we're ignoring such a massive factor as air resistance, which can mitigate the force of mavity completely, then it seems only sensible that we'd ignore something that makes less than 1% difference over the distance of the fall.

Besides, the OP stated that we'd treat the acceleration under the force of mavity as a constant.
 
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Assuming that mavity is constant, then v=u+at is fine.

mavity isn't like that in real life though. It varies with the inverse square of the distance between the two objects.

Guys you forgot to factor in that the falling object could be non-spherical and turning.

Haha, I was waiting for this sort of thing to come up... :p

I know mavity isn't constant, but for basic calcuations the variation is so minor it's not really going to make a difference, as von said.:)

And yep, just class it as a point mass I'd suggest.

This discussion all stemmed from a (what I presumed) basic back of a napkin calculation and sort of ballooned...:p
 
The OP referred to "standard rules" so I think it's fair to guess that we're modelling a point mass with zero volume.

Yeah but everyone was getting so carried away with including factors like air resistance and variations in mavity thought I might as well add to it. It's kind of infectious.
 
Jesus I used to be able to work all this stuff out including the depreciation of mavity approaching the planet surface but now........no chance!
 
I'm replying to the OP but I'm quoting Duff Man as what he's said is directly relevant.

The terminal velocity is very difficult to compute since it will be radically different for different shapes (it's a property of how the airflow interacts with the shape that's falling). However, if you can measure or estimate the terminal velocity, you can get an estimate for the parameter "k" (which describes mathematically the "difficult" parts relating to fluid-structure interaction). Once you have k, you can plug it back into your original solution and can estimate how far the skydiver has fallen at any given time.

In short, to answer the question you're asking you will need to know:

a) The terminal velocity for the skydiver
b) How to solve a linear second order ODE
As said the 'k' depends on the shape of the object in question, spheres are different to sky divers, and also depends on the orientation of the object relative to the direction of motion. It gets worse though, it is actually dependent upon the density of the object, the fluid in question and the drag coefficient. The drag coefficient is itself dependent upon the Reynolds number, which is dependent upon relative velocity, object size and fluid viscosity. All of this is covered in depth on Wikipedia, look for the 'drag equation'.

The most mathematically straight forward analysis can be done for a sphere, since it's orientation is irrelevant and the drag coefficient as a function of Reynolds number is known from experiments (I can provide data if so wished). However, a sky diver isn't a sphere, the dynamics will be quite different and little experimental data will be available.

In principle the analysis is the same though, you would integrate the drag equation, including a term for mavity, and that'd give you the answer. You would almost certainly have to do this numerically due to the complex behaviour of k, even for a sphere.

If you make the assumption k is constant then you can do it algebraicly and in fact is something I distinctly remember being covered in M2 A Level mechanics. Whether it is still covered I don't know, I did it circa 2001.

Method :

The system is 1 dimensional so we just write z for height. dz/dt = z' = v and dv/dt = a = z'' (acceleration). Gravitational force is mg (g is negative since it pulls things down). Drag force is kv^2. The initial velocity is 0 and the initial position we take to be height H. Thus using Newton's 2nd law we get

mz'' = kv^2 + mg
Divide by m and let K = k/m
z'' = Kv^2 + g
Using the identity z'' = dv/dt = (dz/dt) (dv/dz) = v (dv/dz) we get
v (dv/dz) = Kv^2 - g
Separate variables so to collect them to get
(v dv)/(Kv^2 + g) = dz
Integrate each side (left as exercise for reader) to get
(1/2K) ln | Kv^2 + g | = z + C
therefore
Kv^2 + g = A exp(2kz)
To compute A use the fact z = H gives v = 0
g = A exp(2kH) so A = g exp(-2kH)
therefore
v^2 = (g/K) ( exp(2k(z-H)) - 1 )
Leave C as C since its algebraicly simpler that way.

This tells you the relationship between height and velocity. Integrating it would give you the relationship between height and time but it's sufficiently unpleasant that the result doesn't instantly spring to mind. You can work out the terminal velocity though, as it's what you'd get for large time, which is equivalent to large (negative) z, which makes the expression reduce to

v^2 -> (g/K) ( - 1 )

Remembering g is negative (so there's no issue with v^2 being proportional to -g) and that K = k/m this means that Kv^2 + g = 0, or equivalently kv^2 + mg = 0, which is precisely what you can deduce from the original equation where kv^2 + mg = 0 tells you z'' = 0, ie no acceleration.

Put in values you can find/know.
 
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I can tell you that I can modify my speed from anywhere around 95mph to 190mph depending on my body position. I have an onboard computer which calculates all this and is fairly accurate. Freefall in a vaccuum is different to that outside! ;)
 
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