No, that's wrong. I know what you're trying to say here, but exact wording matters - it can't be called a warranty/guarantee, as these require specific document with terms listed and be named as such, along with stating exactly who will deal with that in case of a claim. It is NOT by default a seller, it's whoever is stated in the document (which in this way can be treated as a contract). If there are no terms of warranty and proper document attached, then you're not getting any warranty really - just false claim by retailer, for which they're legally responsible.
Uh… well, I do at least agree that exact wording does matter
First, some bonus context and a clarification. Taking it at its face value legal meaning, a ‘warranty’ just means a term of a contract that amounts to a contractual promise, for which there is a remedy of damages if there is a breach. It contrasts with (and is less important than) a ‘condition’ which is the other sort of term that forms part of a contract. A consumer sales contract, like any contract, is formed of both ‘conditions’ and ‘warranties’.
With apologies for not being precise at first instance (although it's not really the point of contention), when I said these two things:
(III) There are then warranties that are provided to consumers as part of a sale contract with a retailer as a matter of law.
The article you linked to simply states that the type of warranty referred to in (III) always applies.
I acknowledge that should have fleshed this out to fully say this:
(III) There are then warranties that are provided to consumers as part of a sale contract with a retailer, both (i) as per the contractual terms of the sale, and (ii) the warranties and conditions inferred as a matter of law e.g. Consumer Rights Act (CRA).
The article you linked to simply states that the type of warranties and conditions referred to in (III)(ii) always applies.
And that
is what the article you linked to means: as a seller you might still have to deal with consumer returns even if a manufacturer's warranty has expired.
We were are at cross purposes slightly as you didn't understand, and I concede that I didn't fully explain, what I meant when I was referring to 'warranties'. Across your posts you seem to be referring to the ‘colloquial consumer meaning’ of a contractual promise to make good any defects in a consumer purchase, which is a narrower meaning of 'warranty'. So a misunderstanding between us but no biggy.
Now, with what you say here:
it can't be called a warranty/guarantee, as these require specific document with terms listed and be named as such, along with stating exactly who will deal with that in case of a claim. It is NOT by default a seller, it's whoever is stated in the document (which in this way can be treated as a contract). If there are no terms of warranty and proper document attached, then you're not getting any warranty really - just false claim by retailer, for which they're legally responsible.
(We've already dealt with there being different types of warranty so no need to go over that again)
On “warranties not by default being the seller, it’s whoever is in the contract” - well, admittedly generalising yet also technically speaking, no. Your contract is by default always with seller, because save for some academic exceptions and positions reserved by statute, you can’t contractually bind a third party without a passing of consideration passing directly between those parties. This is why collateral warranties in land transactions / construction are made as a written
deed to the beneficiary, because the act of executing the warranty as a ‘deed’ makes it enforceable. If you review
CRA, you'll see that all of the implied terms form part of contract to supply goods (i.e. the contract between the consumer and the retailer). This is why
@SeeNoWeevil was correct when he initially said 'your right of recourse is against the seller'. It's also the reason why I suggested you might be confused on these topics.
However, there is a statutory exception for consumer contracts set out in
section 30 of CRA which makes guarantees enforceable against manufacturers if they are representing that they will deal with defects etc. Hence me referring to a manufacturer’s warranty being given as a ‘gesture of good will’, because manufacturers are
not obliged to give them and they are
not a party to the sale contract. If we are being precise (let's!) then it's not correct to say "it's whoever is in the contract" because if a seller just throws down a guarantors name in the terms of a sales contract willy-nilly, this will not bind the manufacturer to provide a guarantee. It would have to be genuinely offered. And, again, the bulk of implied terms form part of the contract with the retailer.
If in some very unlikely scenario that I bought an ASUS motherboard that went wrong from OcUK and both refused to deal with it and I had a particularly bee in my bonnet about it / felt I was justified in getting a replacement / some remedy
and (!) had unlimited money and time, then I would be taking legal action against OcUK and ASUS for breach of CRA. But I would have exhausted all other avenues first.
I hope that clears things up.