I can tell you that the Bible clearly states God created the first human pair (man and woman)
Does it? Clearly?
Then why does the language used alter depending upon the source material and the interpretation mean that various positions can be derived from them. For example, in the Hebrew, Adam can be interpreted as both Man and Mankind, as well as being both sexes at once prior to Eve.
Also where is your observable proof for this, you state categorically that Moses wrote Genesis and the Pentateuch, yet you also advocate Ken Hams position that unless observed it has no validity...did you, or anyone observe Moses write the Pentateuch, or observe the Creation of Man, or the Expulsion from Eden?
Do you not see the inherent flaw in ascribing to a literal interpretation of what is clearly a metaphorical text...how do you explain the inherent contradictions between Genesis 1 and 2? You say they were written by the same Man, yet the are contradictory if you follow a literal position.
