Pay from previous company issues

If you had 4 days holiday left to take (pro-rata from 1st April 2014 - 1st April 2015) and left mid December, is it not just a case that your holidays were readjusted pro-rata to 1st April 2014 - 14th December 2014, meaning you ended up with less than originally given for a full year?

I'm thinking this is exactly what has happened.

If OP had 28 days holiday a year that is approx 2.3 days a month. He has worked 8.5 months so that gives him around 20 days holiday to use.

He thinks he has 4 unused days, so if this is taken from his annual allowance (28) that means he has taken 24.

He has only accrued 20 days, but used 24 - therefore he owes the company 4 days.
 
And don't worry about being on the 'emergency tax code' - it's just the same as the standard tax code but on a month 1/week 1 basis.

Which again, if you have been earning over 10K, is not going to make much difference.

Interesting, thanks!

I'm thinking this is exactly what has happened.

If OP had 28 days holiday a year that is approx 2.3 days a month. He has worked 8.5 months so that gives him around 20 days holiday to use.

He thinks he has 4 unused days, so if this is taken from his annual allowance (28) that means he has taken 24.

He has only accrued 20 days, but used 24 - therefore he owes the company 4 days.

To you and the others questioning it, I thought I'd made it quite clear this isn't the case. There's no disputing whether I'm owed the money or not, it's just getting them to action it and get it to me, which I'm sure is a pain for them and low priority since I'm no longer an employee, but they need to make it happen faster than over a 10 week period.
 
Tell them you're going to have to take a payday load at 5million% and will be using the Small Claims Court to retrieve the interest from them :)

(Do not actually take a payday loan, these people are ze devil!)
 
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