Yes, but rolling two 1's from the three dice is slightly different. The first one can be a 5, the second and third could be a 1, et cetera, et cetera, so all of these combinations have to be taken into account.
Ah forgot to mention that, it is at least 2 ones. Im sure I can't remember the forumula having been that complicated, I guess we didn't learn that at gcse after all.
Ah forgot to mention that, it is at least 2 ones. Im sure I can't remember the forumula having been that complicated, I guess we didn't learn that at gcse after all.
It's not that complicated really - try thinking of it this way:
For at least two 1s, you need two of the dice to be 1 and the other can be anything.
two 1s in two dice is 1/6 * 1/6 = 1/36
Now the probability of the other die being anything is 1/6 * 6 = 1
As it doesn't matter which two dice have the two 1s we need to multiply this by the number of ways we can pick two dice from 3 possible choices. There are three ways to do this, so you get 1/36 * 1 * 3 = 1/12 = 8.3%
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