Quick question with regards to the law

Soldato
Joined
3 Jan 2009
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8,037
A couple of years ago there was talk of changing the law to make it possible for a woman to accuse a man of rape if she was deemed too drunk to be able to consent to having sex. Some quick googling threw up a few old newspaper articles but nothing more concrete. Does anyone know where the law stands on this?
 
Honestly, why the hell is this even open for discussion. Are you really trying to decide whether to bone some unconscious girl?

I would have thought it would appear manifestly immoral, whether or not it's actually illegal in any certain terms.
 
It's not really a change in the law per se, it's a clarification at worst/best becasue as Moses99 has posted if the person cannot consent or there is not a reasonable belief that they consent then it would be rape. If the person is insensible through alcohol it's difficult to make a case that they consent.
 
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