Caporegime
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- 20 Oct 2002
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Sequoia said:But an "accident" is not the same thing as recklessness. If you do something which you do, or should have, known was likely to lead to such damage, then it's reckless and if it's reckless then it's criminal damage. But, as I said, the big issue is the definition of recklessness. What degree of foresight of likely consequences means you, or an objective reasonable bystander, should have foreseen those consequences? That argument has been going on for decades, right up to and into the House of Lords.
Quite right, the maxim actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea and the notion that a conviction should be dependant on proving the state of mind of the individual defendant. The reasonable man's test was when Caldwell (Lord Diplock decision was in force), the reasonable man is sober and prudent, suffers no mental incapacity, does not lack foresight associated with youth. Now days, the state of mind of the defendant has to be prove instead. Each case would be different and base on its own merrit.