Roll of the dice..
- Thread starter salami1212
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It would make no difference if they weren't rolled simultaneously
Soldato
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I think what he means is that knowledge of the system doesn't change between rolls. If the first result is known before the second result, then the overall probability will "reduce" to 1/6 from 1/36.
Soldato
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...or as that Heinz bloke used to say in the early days of the National Lottery, 'chance has no memory'.
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If you rolled the die 6 times, the chance of getting exactly 1 of each number would be 5x4x3x2/6^5 = 5/324
If you rolled the die 12 times, the chance of getting exactly 2 of each number would be......
A lot too difficult for me to bother working out, but it would be less.
So in answer to your question, no... The chances get lower as you roll them more times. However, the difference compared to the number of times you rolled the die would get smaller (i.e. The average percentage away from exactly 1/6) would get smaller
If you rolled the die 12 times, the chance of getting exactly 2 of each number would be......
A lot too difficult for me to bother working out, but it would be less.
So in answer to your question, no... The chances get lower as you roll them more times. However, the difference compared to the number of times you rolled the die would get smaller (i.e. The average percentage away from exactly 1/6) would get smaller
Wouldn't this be the other way around? If you already know you hit one 6, then the next roll is a 1/6 chance of hitting a 6. If you havn't rolled the first of two rolls, then the chance of hitting 6 twice is 1/36?
pop into the programming section and ask someone to write a program to find it out for you.
Random number generator from 1-6, you can input the exact number of roles and hit run.
It can then record the numbers for you and give you a total of each number at the end of the run.
Run it several times and post back with your answer
Random number generator from 1-6, you can input the exact number of roles and hit run.
It can then record the numbers for you and give you a total of each number at the end of the run.
Run it several times and post back with your answer
As are you!
What an a wonderfully helpful and well thought out post.
Even if you'd come in and said something random that was slightly to do with the topic it wouldn't of been so bad, but you just make people dislike you!
It depends how the events were being recorded, it's easier to simulate with simultaneous dice. On any occasion, the chance of me rolling a 6 is always going to be 1/6. If I've previously rolled a six however, the chances of me rolling another six is 1/36.
The logic only appears to fall apart when people say "but the chances of rolling any number is 1/6, so regardless of what I previously rolled, the chance of me rolling a 6 again is 1/6". It isn't the logic failing, it's the recording of the events. If you're measuring the probability of an event happening twice in a row, you have to take in to account the result of the previous event.
As are you!
What an a wonderfully helpful and well thought out post.
Even if you'd come in and said something random that was slightly to do with the topic it wouldn't of been so bad, but you just make people dislike you!
Sorry mate, didnt mean to upset you! you gonna be ok?
Eh, a bit of confusion in this thread, then.
Previous outcomes have nothing to do with anything
Doesn't matter if you roll one die multiple times or roll multiple dice. It's simples:
you roll one die you have 6 equally probable outcomes. hence 1/6 probability.
you roll two dice you have 36 equally probable outcomes.
d1:d2
1-1
1-2
1-3
1-4
1-5
1-6
2-1
2-2
...
6-5
6-6
Getting two 6s is one outcome out of... 36!
Don't they teach you this stuff at primary school anymore?
Previous outcomes have nothing to do with anything
Doesn't matter if you roll one die multiple times or roll multiple dice. It's simples:you roll one die you have 6 equally probable outcomes. hence 1/6 probability.
you roll two dice you have 36 equally probable outcomes.
d1:d2
1-1
1-2
1-3
1-4
1-5
1-6
2-1
2-2
...
6-5
6-6
Getting two 6s is one outcome out of... 36!
Don't they teach you this stuff at primary school anymore?
Soldato
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Dice don't have memory. 6 is equally likely to roll next throw regardless to what number was rolled on the previous throw. Getting a single die to roll 6, 6, 6, 6, 6, 6 is equally as probable as rolling 5, 2, 5, 6, 4, 1.
(off topic, but lottery numbers don't have memory either)
(off topic, but lottery numbers don't have memory either)
This I agree with.
It would take a lot more than you to upset me. I just like telling people people like you who post rubbish that they are idiots
If you'd f come in and posted what you thought was right in your first post I wouldn't of had to comment on you. However, it appears you wanted others to post the answer so that you could be safe and agree with them.
It would take a lot more than you to upset me. I just like telling people people like you who post rubbish that they are idiots
If you'd f come in and posted what you thought was right in your first post I wouldn't of had to comment on you. However, it appears you wanted others to post the answer so that you could be safe and agree with them.
Nope. I simply thought the OP's original question was very stupid. If that makes me an idiot, well then, thanks for the personal attack.
now excuse me whilst I cry myself to sleep
No. Clearly past events have no impact on future events in this instance. Why on earth would you think that?
With the same line of thinking it's just as possible this week's lottery numbers will be the same as last week's numbers instead of any one of the various permutations. Balls don't retain memory just as dice don't.
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