Simple question on percentages!

Nimble · 20 Sep 2009 at 15:59

PMKeates said:
As an independent event, yes. Otherwise, no. On your principal the probability of a roulette wheel being red for 1,000 goes is the same as it being 500 black and 500 red.

Spins of a roulette wheel are independent of each other and the probability of getting red 1000 times in a row is the same as getting black 500 times in a row and then red 500 times in a row. If you are not considering that particular order then the probability would not be the same but that's because of the amount of combinations, not any dependency between events.

Wicksta · 20 Sep 2009 at 16:30

We need an expert on percentages in the thread, anyone got matttheman's number?

crunchee · 20 Sep 2009 at 16:40

bibalasvegas said:
FAIL.

MarkDavis said:
LOL!

Surely its most likely a typo, on writing down 2/25, considering he actualy gave the final answer as 4%. Because if he truly believed 1*1=2 then he would come up with 8%.

PMKeates · 20 Sep 2009 at 17:08

Nimble said:
Spins of a roulette wheel are independent of each other and the probability of getting red 1000 times in a row is the same as getting black 500 times in a row and then red 500 times in a row. If you are not considering that particular order then the probability would not be the same but that's because of the amount of combinations, not any dependency between events.

I badly worded it.

Throw two dice. Chance of each die rolling a six is 1/6. Chance of both rolling a six is not 1/6.

QlimaxUK · 20 Sep 2009 at 17:40

PMKeates said:
As an independent event, yes. Otherwise, no. On your principal the probability of a roulette wheel being red for 1,000 goes is the same as it being 500 black and 500 red.

ok heres one, whats the chance of a roulette wheel landing on number 13 for 1000 goes in a row

both in a percentage and 1/??? number?

Deadbeat · 20 Sep 2009 at 18:19

Either (1/37)^1000 or (1/38)^1000, depending on whether you're thinking American or European roulette.