lol bible has 'versions'. Insta-fail.
The reason the bible has multiple versions is that it isn't written in English, its written in Hebrew and Greek, and there is often no direct literal translation. Different translations occur where people try to translate old language into modern idiom. It's no different from, say, Canterbury Tales which is more often read translated into modern English from it's original 14th century Middle English. It doesn't diminish the book at all, just brings it to a new audience and promotes understanding of the original text. There are multiple different translations of Canterbury Tales into modern english too, some done as time leaves the old translations no longer relevant to a modern generation, others where scholars disagree with the translation and chose to do their own. That can be down to subtleties like political and life views that have an impact at that level.
Going back to the bible and translations, consider the use of the word love in the bible, which appears 258 times in the New Testament (in the NIV translation). Each of those occasions the original greek word would be either Agapē, Eros or Philia. I'm not aware that Storge appears in there but it might. Each of those three words means "love" but different types (read
this link for detailed descriptions).
The famous passage from Corinthians "If I speak in the tongues[a] of men and of angels, but have not love, I am only a resounding gong or a clanging cymbal." etc. etc, the word love there is actually Agape, or God's love, a compassionate love, not Eros the love between a husband and wife. It's use at weddings is kind of stupid if you understand the subtext.
Different translations will phrase the concept in different ways, however the translator feels conveys the meaning of the original text best. The case with love is probably one of the easiest translations.
A more controversial passage that will change from version to version is 1 Corinthians 6:9.
From the NIV, first published in 1978:
9Do you not know that the wicked will not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived: Neither the sexually immoral nor idolaters nor adulterers nor male prostitutes nor homosexual offenders
Switch over to the old King James Version, from the early 17th century:
9Know ye not that the unrighteous shall not inherit the kingdom of God? Be not deceived: neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor effeminate, nor abusers of themselves with mankind,
That last bit is key here. In the NIV they think the passage refers to homosexuality, in older times they thought it referred to masturbation. The problem is the original greek phrase: malakoi arsenokoitai
No one knows exactly what that phrase means anymore. Malakoi means soft, arsenokoitai is the unknown word. The early church belief (and probably the most accurate) was that it referred to people of soft morals. It's only later translations where translating scholars have looked at the context of the phrase and decided that it refers to some form of sexual immorality, and have gone with what they perceive to be that age's biggest sexual deviation.
Without having seen different translations, not being a biblical scholar, I would have only been able to take that original passage at face value. Instead I'm conscious that it needs to be taken with serious consideration for other possible interpretations.
So no, different translations does not mean Insta-fail, it just means that a) The English language is always changing and growing with the meaning of words changing, and b) People's world views impact how they translate.
Hardly news, hardly shocking.. except possibly to you?