OEM Vista

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basically


OEM = one machine, tied to motherboard
RETAIL = one machine at a time, unlimited motherboards

if your board breaks with an OEM licence, you can replace it and use it on that instead
 
Not necessarily, and it depends who's doing the not allowing - a club near me has a shirt & tie dress code, but it wouldn't be "illegal" for me to go in wearing my favourite Kylie Minogue T-shirt (assuming the door staff were looking the other way).

It might seem like an argument over semantics, and of course it is, but I do think it's important to get these things right to avoid misunderstandings. :)

Enjoy it whilst it lasts because Microsoft will deactivate your key on at least one of your PCs, before long.
 
Enjoy it whilst it lasts because Microsoft will deactivate your key on at least one of your PCs, before long.

I've got my oem vista installed on at least 3 pc's in my house, and it's been on 2 of them for at least 2 years. I've never had a problem with them deactivating any of them.
 
According to the above terms it is perfectly legal to resell your oem copy providing you no longer use it. How you could prove you no longer use it I suppose would be up to Microsoft.
 
According to the above terms it is perfectly legal to resell your oem copy providing you no longer use it. How you could prove you no longer use it I suppose would be up to Microsoft.

How did you work that one out?

The only visible loophole I can see is that the terms state the OEM software is tied to the "'device' with which it was purchased." Since you could purchase the OEM software with any item of hardware, or indeed individually, one could argue that, so long as that item of hardware stays with the software, it is within licence.

I would assume that, as the whole licence agreement isn't shown, elsewhere in the agreement it is stipulated that the 'device' is the motherboard.
 
Yes the device being the motherboard. I intend to sell my copy with the motherboard if I can find a buyer. My previous point was based on this though didn't go into detail as I thought the point obvious: You are not allowed to sell an oem copy if you continue to use it.

Saying that, it does appear from many previous discussions regarding the sale of Vista, microsoft is more concerned about the pirating of illegal keys/ pswds being used enmass rather than the passing over of the software to other machines from "legitimate" fee-paying users.
 
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so how comes all of these pirated editions seem to last so long and people keep downloading them, microsoft must not be doing their job properly, even though it must be hard to keep on top of it all.

the only thing i see MS doing is blacklisting certain product keys so they do not recieve updates, makes me feel sorry for the original owner of that key :)
 
so how comes all of these pirated editions seem to last so long and people keep downloading them, microsoft must not be doing their job properly, even though it must be hard to keep on top of it all.

the only thing i see MS doing is blacklisting certain product keys so they do not recieve updates, makes me feel sorry for the original owner of that key :)

Most pirate copies of Vista/7 use an OEM key that's used to mass activate OEM PCs. They can't blacklist the keys without rendering thousands of legitimate PCs useless.
 
Ive Instailed oem versions of vista on both of my machines with the same code and have both been activited fine.

I've got my oem vista installed on at least 3 pc's in my house, and it's been on 2 of them for at least 2 years. I've never had a problem with them deactivating any of them.

I don't get it. What's the point buying a legal copy of Vista and then breaking the license terms? You're just as unlicensed as someone who's pirated a copy and you've paid for the privilege. :confused:
 
I don't get it. What's the point buying a legal copy of Vista and then breaking the license terms? You're just as unlicensed as someone who's pirated a copy and you've paid for the privilege. :confused:

Saves the effort of cracking the activation in vista, when windows genuinely activates it i'd rather do that. Why should i pay more for the retail copy so i can do the same as what i've done now? Just so at the back of my mind i know that it's "legal", you waste your money if you want.
 
Saves the effort of cracking the activation in vista, when windows genuinely activates it i'd rather do that. Why should i pay more for the retail copy so i can do the same as what i've done now? Just so at the back of my mind i know that it's "legal", you waste your money if you want.

Because double clicking on an activator bat file is hard right?
 
Saves the effort of cracking the activation in vista, when windows genuinely activates it i'd rather do that. Why should i pay more for the retail copy so i can do the same as what i've done now? Just so at the back of my mind i know that it's "legal", you waste your money if you want.

Waste my money? I'm not the one who's paying to run pirate copies of Vista!
 
I was thinking... if you have one copy of Vista and you run it on two PCs, are they both unlicensed, or just one of them?

I think you could argue that both are unlicensed. When you run the OS on each machine, you're subject to the license, which specifies that the software can only be used on one system. Therefore you're breaching the licence terms on both the machines by running it on the other, and hence both are unlicensed?

You could also say that only one is unlicensed. But since the license terms and the installation are the same on both machines, I would argue that it's not possible for their licensing status to differ, as any difference would just be arbitrary.

All semantics really, but a curious question.
 
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