I emailed them once to ask about that 0.1% remaining. My question was carefully phrased (so as to be clear, not to be 'clever' about it), and I basically asked whether the product 'missed' that 0.1% of germs because of chance/washing technique/whatever or whether the 0.1% were simply resistant to the product. If the latter, then surely within a few hours you're simply harbouring ('breeding') germs that are resistant to the product anyway, hence rendering it useless compared to good ole fashioned soap and water.
The reply? "If the product killed 100% of germs your hands or the surface (depending on the product in question) would be sterile. Since your hands/surfaces aren't an operating theatre they aren't sterile. It kills 99.9% of bacteria."
Now is it just me, or did they not answer the question?

Either it kills all germs, or it doesn't. If it doesn't is it simply a mechanical omission (technique, chance etc) or does it leave resistant germs that the product is no longer effective against, thus increasing resistance amongst the general population? They didn't seem to want to answer. I stick to soap and water now.

As an aside bleach solution kills 100% of bacteria (provided there's no organic matter, aluminium etc present) so what their sterile/operating theatre comment was about, if not redirection, I don't know.