http://www.goal.com/en-us/news/85/e...uson-fined-by-fa-for-comments-after-tottenham
What constitutes implying that the official is "bent"? Here, for instance, Ferguson has simply said that the same linesman also had a poor game when they played Chelsea previously. Is that sufficient?
The thing is, this would barely be an issue if refs were able to come out and explain their decisions. If Fergie had come out and called him bent, and the ref was able to outline why he made the decision, I'd imagine that it would be fine. We'd have both sides of the story, and that would be that.
Also, this is brilliant: http://www.bbc.co.uk/news/uk-england-nottinghamshire-21687292
What constitutes implying that the official is "bent"? Here, for instance, Ferguson has simply said that the same linesman also had a poor game when they played Chelsea previously. Is that sufficient?
The thing is, this would barely be an issue if refs were able to come out and explain their decisions. If Fergie had come out and called him bent, and the ref was able to outline why he made the decision, I'd imagine that it would be fine. We'd have both sides of the story, and that would be that.
Also, this is brilliant: http://www.bbc.co.uk/news/uk-england-nottinghamshire-21687292