You didn't try and sue the guy straight after he pulled out of the deal and a court can see that you was happy to relist the item for sale again without any reserve which means you have started a new personal contract under Ebay terms of sale in selling the item to the highest bidder?
Why would any court think that you was now entitled to a higher price (or made a loss) when you yourself have agreed to sell the item again to the highest bidder without taking this issue to court first?
Why would any court think that you was now entitled to a higher price (or made a loss) when you yourself have agreed to sell the item again to the highest bidder without taking this issue to court first?

