Poll: Does 0.99 Recurring = 1

Does 0.99 Recurring = 1

  • Yes

    Votes: 225 42.5%
  • No

    Votes: 304 57.5%

  • Total voters
    529
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Originally posted by Raymond Lin


Does Pi = 3.14? or do you accept it's Pi ?

3.14 is an approximation to pi, but pi is transcendental so you can only ever have an approximation to it anyway.

0.33 is an approximation of 1/3, 0.333 recurring is actually equal to one third.
 
Originally posted by Raymond Lin
Does Pi = 3.14?
No. Pi is pi.
Originally posted by Raymond Lin
So how can 0.9r = 1?
See proofs posted earlier.

As I said, you are trying to link it to "common experience", which makes it confusing. Maths does that, its not always the same as common sense.
Originally posted by GTA
Now, I'd be the first to admit there's no way I'm going to read or understand the theory itself, I was under the impression that since multiplication and division are part of the axioms of mathematics, and can't be proved, then the above sum could be wrong, or at least can't be proved to be correct.
If an inconcistency exists, then someone is welcome to post it. True, you cannot say that it doesn't it. If those who say 0.9r isn't 1, then the inconcistency is in there somewhere, and even with GCSE (and certainly A Level) maths, you should be able to show 1>1 :) Fire away......
Originally posted by AcidHell2
LMAO you guys still at it!!!!
Well we don't all know better than God himself now do we ;)
 
After reading what everyone has to say(Well i read the first 20ish pages) i have come up with a comprehensive answer (theory). Please bear with me im not the best at explaining these things.

My theory is that 0.9r is the equivalent of 1, but does not = 1.

now correct me if im wrong but

1-1 = 0

and

0.9r-1 = 0 (as seen by maths)

but common sence suggests that 0.9r < 1 so how can the answer be 0.

well (in my world) it isnt. The real answer has to be,

0.9r-1 = (0.1 * 10^- infinity).

but since infinity is.....well..... infinite the 1 cannot be added and is therefore ignored in maths making the answer 0.

But in the real world the difference still exists making the 0.9 the equivalent of 1 but not = 1.
 
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OMFG 863 replies... mwahahah.


How does 0.9r = 1?


Nothing to do with infinity... it's never ever going to be 1 no matter how many 9's you add on, is it?
 
Originally posted by Shadez
After reading what everyone has to say(Well i read the first 20ish pages) i have come up with a comprehensive answer (theory). Please bear with me im not the best at explaining these things.

My theory is that 0.9r is the equivalent of 1, but does not = 1.

now correct me if im wrong but

1-1 = 0

and

0.9r-1 = 0 (as seen by maths)

but logic suggests that 0.9r < 1 so how can the answer be 0.

well (in my world) it isnt. The real answer has to be,

0.9r-1 = (0.1 * 10^- infinity).

but since infinity is.....well..... infinite the 1 cannot be added and is therefore ignored making the answer 0.

Kind of.

The fact that the 9's or in this case the 0's do go onto infinity is the reason that 0.9r precisely equals 1.
 
Originally posted by Scarfacé
OMFG 863 replies... mwahahah.


How does 0.9r = 1?


Nothing to do with infinity... it's never ever going to be 1 no matter how many 9's you add on, is it?


The whole point is that its not a case of 'adding' 9s on. There already is an infinate (never ending) number of 9s. This is why it precisely equals 1.
 
Godel's question is an interesting one. One of the things his theory says is that in any formal system, there are unprovable truths. This, could be one of them. However, seeing as a formal system is based on "given" theorums (axioms) and "rules" (addition, subtraction, etc.)., the only time you're going to get something where you don't know is true is through self-reference.

Basically, multiplication can never be wrong, as it's one of the rules of the system itself.

And as I said before, 0.999r is just another one of the infinite representations of the concept commonly referred to as "1". Just like 9-8. Or e^(i.pi) +2. There's no reason why it exists, it just does.

As Grrr said, 0.9r is not another one of those numbers you can just write on a piece of paper. If you wrote a million 9's per second until the end of time you wouldn't finish writing it. People don't seem to get that. THere's no conept of adding another 9 on the end because there *is* no end.

/bangs head on table.
 
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Originally posted by Harley
I'm not convinced I'm getting through to the mathematicians here what I'm getting at, about challenging your systems. Maybe I'm just not wording it very well. I may be wrong, and apologise if I am , but I distinctly get the impression that the "philosophical" line of argument is being dismissed (as in VDO's quote above), perhaps as some sort of fluffy, artsy, non-scientific stuff not worthy of the attention of a scientist or mathematician. If I'm right in that, then wake up.
I think you'll find it difficult to point out anywhere where I dismissed philosophy as anything, because I didn't. My point was merely that people here seem to be reading the thread title, thinking to themselves "hmm, they look different, so they must be different" and then posting as such without reading anything in the thread - ignoring the fact that their issues have been addressed several times already.

I do think you misinterpreted my comment. I put "philosophical" inside quotation marks simply in order to differentiate it from the "mathematical" arguments, not so as to disparage the philosophical way of seeing things in any way.

In fact, as you'll see, I said "where, unlike in Maths, there are valid opposing opinions and there can be debate". This was a response to people saying that, in effect, no matter how many proofs are put forward, they will not acknowledge that "mathematically" 0.9r=1. And what I point out is that proofs are proofs. If they're demonstrated flawed, they cannot be "argued" for as such. If they're correct, you can't simply refuse to accept them - by their very definition, there is no philosophical debate about mathematical proofs.

I think you're still missing what I'm saying. Look at your maths philosophically and ask questions, or at least, understand limits.

So, all the proofs quoted (ad nauseum) work. And so they should, because the point which people have been trying to get at (that any difference betweem 0.9r and 1 is "infinitely small") is assumed out of the system used to provide those proofs, or the system wouldn't work.

Now, I have no problem with that. The system works, in the vast bulk of cases and provides us with immense benefits. But, it does nonetheless, has some incongruities. The cardinality of the sets of natural and even numbers, as I mentioned once before, is one of them.

Questioning your assumptions, and even the foundations of maths, leads to a greater understanding, not a lesser one. Otherwise, all you're doing with even advanced maths is mechanistically applying the system. It might be a complex system to understand, but it would still make you a mechanic. Don't be put off by the word "philosophical". Philosophy in general might relate to a nebulous understanding "the meaning of life, the universe and everything" (\Hitchhikers Guide mode off) but the philosophy of mathematics is about using reason to understand the theories and ideas of maths, to question the limits and principles in order to further that knowledge.
I think you'll find that I (by which I mean myself personally, I can't speak for others) have been speaking in a strictly mathematical sense. Several times I have emphasised that "mathematically", 0.9r=1. And this obviously refers to our current system of math, I'm not about to debate what we get to in fifty years time when we may have grasped the concept of infinity.

Now, I'm not saying that philosophy has no place in this debate - quite the contrary in fact, it is, by its very definition an important part of it - however, it is not one I am prepared to debate at this point in time, which is why I restricted my comments to this thread; this thread seems the more mathematical of the two, the other seems more philosophical. If I were to get involved in the other as well, I would have no time to do anything else! ;)
 
Surely as the "r" means never ending 9's, and just cos u dont ever get to see the end of the 9's, doesnt mean they dont exist. So it cant = 1.
 
See, this is why I hate maths at such complex levels... they seem to create all these lame theorys that currently defeat simple laws of logic. Currently infinity only exists within numbers, right?


Infinity does not exist physically. Logically 0.9r ... infiniate amount of 9's and it's still not quite 1! 1 is a whole number so how does a decimal = 1?
 
Originally posted by Scarfacé
See, this is why I hate maths at such complex levels... they seem to create all these lame theorys that currently defeat simple laws of logic. Currently infinity only exists within numbers, right?


Infinity does not exist physically. Logically 0.9r ... infiniate amount of 9's and it's still not quite 1! 1 is a whole number so how does a decimal = 1?

You mean it defies logic because you don't understand it?

Can the people who say 0.9r doesn't equal 1 explain to me how 4+5 doesn't equal 9?
 
Originally posted by AlphaNumeric
Given the nature the thread, its important.

I know thats why i changed it, but you didnt comment on my theory.

how can 0.9r - 1= 0 without first equating 0.9r to = 1? And if the answer is not 0 the two are not equal.

hence as i said i see 0.9r as the equivalent of 1 not = 1
 
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