Poll: Does 0.99 Recurring = 1

Does 0.99 Recurring = 1

  • Yes

    Votes: 225 42.5%
  • No

    Votes: 304 57.5%

  • Total voters
    529
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Ha, you know what this means ;)

If no-one posts a counterproof:p I can tell my [transexual] maths teacher that s/he was wrong










(he isnt actually transexual, it was originally a typo but becuase he yelled at me today for no reason, I am going to keep it like that)...
 
Originally posted by Pious
As has been said before:

0.9
0.99
0.999

The space between those values and 1 is:

0.1
0.01
0.001

respectively

But in:

0.9r

There is no space left over because the 9s never end.

i understand the point, and really hate to get myself involved in this thread. BUT, if we are to assume that the 9s go on to infinity in 0.999r, then the 0.0(r)1 will get smaller and smaller too and be likened to 1.

Thats fine. But surely as long as we have a 9 added on the end, we equally have a 1 added on to the difference from 1, which, in an equally valid law, can become infinitesimally small - and go on and on being small, but never 0.

infinitesimal is equally valid as infinite, and the gap between 0.999r and 1 will be infinitesimally small, but never = 1.
 
Originally posted by AlphaNumeric
Just print out the proofs posted in this thread, and show them to him. He'll agree with them (or he's a damn poor maths teacher).

Brilliant idea:D








Prints now...

I'll slighly remove the transexual accusations aswell;)

[got some coursework to give to him anyway:(]
 
Originally posted by Pug

infinitesimal is equally valid as infinite, and the gap between 0.999r and 1 will be infinitesimally small, but never = 1.

You mean equal to 0


There is no gap for the reason that has been said several times before: The recurring 9s are NEVER ENDING
 
Originally posted by Grrrrr
You mean equal to 0


There is no gap for the reason that has been said several times before: The recurring 9s are NEVER ENDING

no i mean never = 0 ;)

if the 9s are never ending, neither is the gap between 0.999r and 1.

i'm no mathmetician, i'm a scientist and therefore logical :p

If your theory states that there is a difference of "n" from 1 when you add a 9 then the difference will ALWAYS be there or your theory is as invalid as mine.

You can't have an infinite without an infinitesimal
 
Last edited:
Originally posted by Pug
i'm no mathmetician, i'm a scientist and therefore logical :p
If you're a "scientist" then you'll know stuff like "Quantum Mechanics" is completely non-sensical in places! Maths is about logic, but that isn't the same as common sense.
Originally posted by Pug
then the difference will ALWAYS be there
Not if you take the infinite limit :)

I'd type more but I've a "Principles of Quantum Mechanics" supervision now.
mmm......eigenstates.....
 
I think the problem many people are having is that intuitively 0.9r is not equal to one, but logically it is.

You then have the problem of people preferring their intuition over logic - therefore presenting no chance of arguing against them, as any presentation of logic will be dismissed as it just doesn't 'seem' right.
 
Originally posted by Shadez
how can 0.9r - 1= 0 without first equating 0.9r to = 1? And if the answer is not 0 the two are not equal.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

The answer is zero though.

I dont know why i bothered this thread is moving to fast, and im to slow and explaining things like this, maybe one day someone will read through this thread and understand what i was trying to say......
 
Originally posted by Pious
Please let's not associate "philosophy" with believing that 0.9r != 1 and mathematics with 0.9r = 1. The link you posted, is someone's opinion albeit a professional mathematician/philosopher, but that doesn't make them right; there are plently of philosophers who would disagree with it.

Harley, I'm afraid in this case you might just be wrong and have misunderstood the subtle reasoning that it takes to see that 0.9r actually refers to the same concept as "1".
I haven't misunderstood it at all, and I don't see anything subtle about the reasoning. In fact, it strikes me as blindingly obvious, almost self-evident - within the use to which the term "infinity" (or rather, infinitesimally small) is put. I didn't dispute 0.9r=1 since my first post on it 2 days ago, and haven't disputed since and I'm certainly not associating philosophy with 0.9r!=1. Maybe others are, but I'm not.

That's not what I'm saying at all.

Did you read that article, Pious?

In case not, let me clarify one thing. Philosophy and philosophy of maths aren't the same thing. Any philosopher that attempts to look at maths philosophically is going to get his knickers in a twist in short order, if he isn't also a mathematician.

I've seen some remarks on here that are either woolly or wrong, depending on how you look at it, like whether an convergent infinite series approaches a limit or reaches it. I make no pretence at being a mathematician, despite having done some maths at Uni many years ago, but in my day, that would be "approach, but never quite reach". The difference may be infinitesimally small, but it's there.

But whether that difference is important or not depends what you're up to. For instance, what's the square root of 2? In purely mathematical terms, we can express the result but never fully quantify it. For almost any practical purposes, however, expressing it to some number of decimal places (depending on the purpose) will inevitably be enough. So, does that infinitesimally small difference matter? Maths often uses approximations, and sometimes has notation specifically to denote them. You can't express root 2 accurately any other way. Absent the notation, you are stuck with an approximation. Recurring numbers are another such notation as you can't express such numbers accurately without some such notation, and infinity is another example of that, as are the Sigma notations to express the sum of a convergent infinite series.

Maths HAS to have such notations or many problems either become almost inexpressibly cumbersome or just doesn't work. And as soon as you start using such notation, you have to accept that they imply approximations, or a notation to indicate such.

What does 0.9r actually mean?

Many times, Alpha and other maths types have said, paraphrasing, '0.9 followed by an infinite number of nines', and have followed it up by comments like 'you can add another number onto that infinite number of nines because it's infinite. Well, agreed. Totally agreed. But then you have to ask what "infinite" means, otherwise that statement is meaningless, and "infinite" is just a trite way of getting round a problem.

And that is where the philosophy of maths comes in - because the answer to that question could be viewed as "whatever it needs to mean to make the methodology work at the extreme, provided such is consistent with observable results". That's my paraphrasing of something Alpha said in response to comments about the nature of proofs. i.e. that something is right in maths if it can't be proven to be wrong, so if I've mischaracterized what he meant, then it's my fault. My response to that logic, by the way, is that it's better to say that something should be accepted as being right in maths, until it is proven wrong. The difference in statement is, perhaps, the difference between the mechanistic and philosophical approaches to maths.

So, there's a dichotomy. Alpha said that pure maths exists in a world of it's own, disparate from the real world, so that trying to resolve infinity to the billionth, gazillionth, googolinionth (nice word, huh? :)) or googolgazzionth (I'm getting good at this word stuff) decimal place is irrelevant in the pure world as it doesn't affect the theory, and irrelevant in the real world as you get far beyond the quantum point when you go that far. Yet, in that same, highly theoretical world of pure maths, you still have paradoxes involving infinity - like the cardinality of the set of natural and even numbers being the same (the Aleph discussion), despite the self-evident fact that one set has members the other doesn't - all because of the nature of infinity.

That, without doubt (to me, at least) gets to the point of the philosophy of maths because it comes down to the nature of infinity (and therefore, 'infinitesimally').

My argument, therefore, is that you can answer the original question using a given system, based on the interpretation of infinity implicit in those systems, and that such proofs as given will work because of the implicit interpretations of infinity. The fact that this is not the only interpretation of infinity possible, even within maths, does not invalidate those proofs, within those systems - and those systems are systems which, so far, have demonstrably failed to be disproved and upon which much of our current understanding of maths, and therefore both technology and our modern lifestyles, are based. So, implicit in that is that, at least until proven otherwise, we accept those systems. After all, if someone could demonstrate algebra to no longer work, I suspect the computer I'm typing at would vanish in a puff of smoke, and we'd end up finishing this thread via smoke signals or semaphore. :)

So the answer to the original question, with the mathematical methodology the proofs use is, obviously, "yes, it equals 1". But those methodologies themselves embed definitions of infinity and that is ultimately a philosophical argument and, given the limits of the human brain, one we may never fully resolve - just approximate. Hence my original premise - 'it depends how you look at it'.
 
Originally posted by Shadez
I dont know why i bothered this thread is moving to fast, and im to slow and explaining things like this, maybe one day someone will read through this thread and understand what i was trying to say......

Why do we first need to 'equate 0.9r = 1' when 0.9r IS eqaul to 1?
 
Excellent words, Harley.


It's probably my fault for bringing in the philosophy side of things, suffice to say I've learnt a lot the past few days - thanks to all involved:)

Oh....and Haly....ummm.....thanks too, needed to laugh a little.
 
Originally posted by Rich_L
I think the problem many people are having is that intuitively 0.9r is not equal to one, but logically it is.

You then have the problem of people preferring their intuition over logic - therefore presenting no chance of arguing against them, as any presentation of logic will be dismissed as it just doesn't 'seem' right.

That's exactly what I had. But the 10x - x proof - ie the GCSE one where you turn recurring decimals into fractions - I've always found that rather neat - that was what swung me eventually.
 
Originally posted by Raymond Lin
:rolleyes:

1 - 0.9r isn't Zero, since there is zero is a constant and definite, where 1- 0.9r is a infinite number.

It's like a parabola graph, the curve will never touch Zero.

Is there something interesting at the top of your eyelids?

Anyway,

1 - 0.9999999 (x times) has a finite difference.

However, when you take the limit as x --> infinity you recover zero as the difference. This is the 'only' rational way to handle infinity (as a limit), and it isn't an intuitive concept.

You draw the parallel between a hyperbola (I assume you meant this, and not a parabola - think x^2 for a parabola) like 1/x. 1/x has a finite non-zero value for any x, but as you take the x in the limit to infinity, you recover zero. Just like above.

I think that the intuitive problem is that 0.99999r implicity contains a limit to infinity, and without rigorous treatment this is not an intuitive concept.

Not that any of this matters in practice - in reality our world is discretised in every way (energy - and even space and time if you believe string theory - are discretised), so the idea of an infinite limit is non-physical. At some point, if you go 'far' enough (small enough...) you reach a minimum 'block' size, whatever you are looking at.

Infinity is a purely mathematical concept, and so causes conceptual problems in understanding.
 
Originally posted by Pious
On the contrary, mathematics should be much easier to understand than real life. :p
Ah, but how often do you encounter planks of wood 0.9rm in length in 'real life'? Or journeys oif infinite distance? :p

In 'real life', you don't have to deal with these concepts, which is, I suspect, why people have so much trouble with them.
 
Originally posted by Pious
On the contrary, mathematics should be much easier to understand than real life. :p

Much easier to understand *completely* yes - once the initial axioms have been set up, you can prove whatever theorems are true with absolute certainty.

However, our brains did not evolve to have an intuitive understanding of mathematics (we have to train the heavily to develop this) - they evolved to have an intuitive understanding of the world around us. We can't really understand anything 'completely' in the natural (non-constructed) world, but we can have an intuitive understanding of the world around us, which allows us to survive in that world.
 
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