Originally posted by Shadez
please give me the value of infinity so i can check your workings........... or prove to me in a iron clad way that a fraction / infinity = 0
We use limits. See above.
Originally posted by Shadez
please give me the value of infinity so i can check your workings........... or prove to me in a iron clad way that a fraction / infinity = 0
Originally posted by Shadez
please give me the value of infinity so i can check your workings........... or prove to me in a iron clad way that a fraction / infinity = 0
Its defined as such. Can't argue with that can you?Originally posted by Shadez
or prove to me in a iron clad way that a fraction / infinity = 0
Limits
Intuitive idea of a limit.
Let f be a function, and let the point x=a be in it's domain.
Bodak: (a domain is the set (group, bunch, collection of) of values you can put into f, and not do something silly, like divide by zero)
Suppose what as x gets closer to a, through values of x which are strictly less than a, then the number y=f(x) gets closer and closer to L_. We say that the left limit of f exists at x=a, and write
Lim x->a_ [f(x)] = L_
If you could, it'd be philosophically.Originally posted by AlphaNumeric
Its defined as such. Can't argue with that can you?
Terribly sorry we've offended you with our talk of numbers. Please except my most humble apologies.Originally posted by 50/50
Get over it you geeks.
Tell me your value for infinity in working that one out. Whatever number you give me, I can think of a bigger one.Originally posted by Shadez
yes i can the difference is,
0.1 * 10^- infinity
BTW, you do realise = means "Defined to be", so you've just said "I define 0.9r = 1" therefore 0.9r = 1 axiomatically in your view.Originally posted by Shadez
0.9r = 1
Originally posted by clogiccraigm
Another vote for no, but then I haven't seen or understood the proof.
Originally posted by clogiccraigm
Is 0.0r1 0?
Is 1.0r1 1?
Originally posted by clogiccraigm
And it is my firm belief that 0.0r1 is NOT equal to 0.
Originally posted by Bodak
Did you not think to look/ask before voting, if you were unsure?
Originally posted by gambitt
you're the one who put infinity into an equation (!) first. Just trying to put it in a way you understand.
If you can grasp what Bodak has written, then you'll understand.
Belief and opinion don't come into "logic" though. Can you prove what you say?Originally posted by clogiccraigm
And it is my firm belief that 0.0r1 is NOT equal to 0.
Originally posted by Shadez
[edit]
alpha so your saying this site is wrong?
http://www.staff.vu.edu.au/mcaonline/tool/symbols/symbol.html
Originally posted by AlphaNumeric
I've proved 0.0r1 = 0, can see you see a flaw in it which you can counter in a similar manner (not just "IMO")?
Originally posted by AlphaNumeric
Belief and opinion don't come into "logic" though. Can you prove what you say?
I've proved 0.0r1 = 0, can see you see a flaw in it which you can counter in a similar manner (not just "IMO")?
Originally posted by clogiccraigm
Which means that in turn 0.99r is 1.0, in the same way that 0.99rX is 1.0
Even if the X were 0, 0.99r0 would still equal 1.0 . Weird, but actually makes sense.