Poll: Does 0.99 Recurring = 1

Does 0.99 Recurring = 1

  • Yes

    Votes: 225 42.5%
  • No

    Votes: 304 57.5%

  • Total voters
    529
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Originally posted by Shadez
please give me the value of infinity so i can check your workings........... or prove to me in a iron clad way that a fraction / infinity = 0

We use limits. See above.
 
Originally posted by Shadez
please give me the value of infinity so i can check your workings........... or prove to me in a iron clad way that a fraction / infinity = 0

you're the one who put infinity into an equation (!) first. Just trying to put it in a way you understand.

If you can grasp what Bodak has written, then you'll understand.
 
This is the third "real" page in my n00by-degree calculus notes. I think it's designed so anyone can follow it.

Limits

Intuitive idea of a limit.

Let f be a function, and let the point x=a be in it's domain.

Bodak: (a domain is the set (group, bunch, collection of) of values you can put into f, and not do something silly, like divide by zero)

Suppose what as x gets closer to a, through values of x which are strictly less than a, then the number y=f(x) gets closer and closer to L_. We say that the left limit of f exists at x=a, and write

Lim x->a_ [f(x)] = L_

So take f(x) = 1/x.

We start with something simple. Look at x=1. 1/1 is 1. Then look at x=2. 1/2 is 0.5. Continue. You'll never be able to get to "infinity" like this, because you will die, amongst other issues. So look at what is happening.

Lim n->inf [1/n] = 0
 
Originally posted by 50/50
:rolleyes: Get over it you geeks.
Terribly sorry we've offended you with our talk of numbers. Please except my most humble apologies.

Or rather, just ignore this thread?
Originally posted by Shadez
yes i can the difference is,

0.1 * 10^- infinity
Tell me your value for infinity in working that one out. Whatever number you give me, I can think of a bigger one.

Hence you can't "put a value" on infinity, only discuss its properties. One of its properties is that

Lim(1/n) as n->infinity = 0.
 
Another vote for no, but then I haven't seen or understood the proof.

Is 0.0r1 0?

Is 1.0r1 1?

Thats the argument put forward. As long as there is a 1 at the end, 0.0r1 != 0

If 0.99r = 1.0, then 1.0 - 0.99r = 0.0r1 = 0

And it is my firm belief that 0.0r1 is NOT equal to 0. Only 0 is equal to zero, anything else tends to zero, but does not equal it. 1 / infinity != zero even though it should be, it will always come out slightly larger.
 
Originally posted by clogiccraigm
Another vote for no, but then I haven't seen or understood the proof.

Did you not think to look/ask before voting, if you were unsure?

Originally posted by clogiccraigm

Is 0.0r1 0?

Is 1.0r1 1?

As already stated, you cannot "stick the 1" at the end of a string of 0's that goes on FOREVER. It cannot be done, and so your notation makes no sense.
 
Originally posted by clogiccraigm

And it is my firm belief that 0.0r1 is NOT equal to 0.

repeating myself here, but as you didn't bother to read it...

taking your 0.0r1, where does this 1 go? on the end of all the zeros? if so, what end?
 
Originally posted by Bodak
Did you not think to look/ask before voting, if you were unsure?

Are there three or four polls, one for each time I decided I have come to a different conclusion? Polls are useful for opinion only, and the first thing I do when I enter a poll is vote. Not get swayed by a hundred different conflicting "proofs" from various people of academia, of varying levels of technical competence. If you want to find out my opinion AFTER reading the thread, why not try getting everyone to post all of the comments etc, and once everyone has finished, THEN post a poll.

Thats why people are given the opportunity to vote after debates, not before them.
 
Originally posted by gambitt
you're the one who put infinity into an equation (!) first. Just trying to put it in a way you understand.

If you can grasp what Bodak has written, then you'll understand.

Intresting, yes i can grasp what bodak has said and that is a much better argument than yours.

So the bassis of your argument against my theory is bassed on the fact that as n aproches infinity the result of 1/n is defined/considered to be 0.

I will accept this, it was purly a theory and im happy to be wrong. In fact its nice for to be proved wrong instead of just ignoring me.


[edit]
alpha so your saying this site is wrong?
http://www.staff.vu.edu.au/mcaonline/tool/symbols/symbol.html
 
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This thread has great comedy value!

You kinda think some are finally getting it but then they just say something silly like "oh but the difference is so small you round it to one"!!!

I believe the most simple to understand proof is the following, its been stated before several times but i'll put it again, but even more simply:-

1/3 = 0.3r exactly i.e. 1/3 = 0.3333333333333...(insert infinite 3's here)

And you must know that 3 x 1/3 = 1. as in three times a third is exactly one, not a little bit less then one or approximatly one or roughly one, one.

Now seeing as 1/3 = 0.3r, and 3 x 1/3 = 1, you can substiture 0.3r for 1/3 in the equation, so 3 x 0.3r = 1. so if 3 x 1/3 is exactly 1, and 1/3 is exactly 0.3r, 3 times 0.3r must also be exactly one.

Another way of multiplying by three is to add the number to itself 3 times, i.e. 3x0.3r = 0.3r + 0.3r + 0.3r = 0.9r, this should be easy to see and obvious to all. So since 3x0.3r=0.9r, and 3x0.3r=3x1/3, and 3x1/3=1, 0.9r=1!!!!!

Now hopefully everyone should be able to follow this one easy enough and see that 0.9r is exactly equal to 1!
 
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Originally posted by clogiccraigm
And it is my firm belief that 0.0r1 is NOT equal to 0.
Belief and opinion don't come into "logic" though. Can you prove what you say?

I've proved 0.0r1 = 0, can see you see a flaw in it which you can counter in a similar manner (not just "IMO")?
 
Originally posted by AlphaNumeric
I've proved 0.0r1 = 0, can see you see a flaw in it which you can counter in a similar manner (not just "IMO")?

when did you prove that? I wouldnt mind seeing the method by which Lim n->inf [1/n] = 0 was derrived(sp?)
 
Originally posted by AlphaNumeric
Belief and opinion don't come into "logic" though. Can you prove what you say?

I've proved 0.0r1 = 0, can see you see a flaw in it which you can counter in a similar manner (not just "IMO")?

Well, I kinda figured 0.0r0 = 0, 0.0rX would be greater than zero... but according to your arguments, 0.0rX is zero by definition, which actually makes sense to me now.

Which means that in turn 0.99r is 1.0, in the same way that 0.99rX is 1.0
Even if the X were 0, 0.99r0 would still equal 1.0 . Weird, but actually makes sense.
 
You can't have 0.0r1, 0.99r1, it just doesnt exist! If you were to have a load of 9's then stuck a 0 on the end it would not be recurring, there would have to be a finite number of 9's if you were to put another number on the end.
 
Originally posted by clogiccraigm

Which means that in turn 0.99r is 1.0, in the same way that 0.99rX is 1.0
Even if the X were 0, 0.99r0 would still equal 1.0 . Weird, but actually makes sense.

But you don't make sense, which makes me think the whole "infinite" thing isn't being stressed. The only thing other than 0.9r that I'd be "happy" to write (even, then at a push) is 0.9r9. Anything after the last 9 before the r, is what you will see until you're finished writing the number - which will never happen.
 
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