Grammar lesson 101

In K_C's example, if I were to type the following:
One meaning of vis-a-vis is "in relation to".
The full stop terminates the clause, and the sentence structure is robust.

In the following sentence:
One meaning of vis-a-vis is "in relation to."
There is no termination of the clause - A more accurate version would be
One meaning of vis-a-vis is "in relation to.".
However, to avoid doubling up punctuation, we use the outer mark alone.

This is the English way, the way of Kings and Noblemen, granted to us by Harry, England and St George.

Them Yanquees just can't speak proper.
 
Borris: Do you know if it is the same when using an abreviation?

i.e. a) "I hate that Water Co."
b) "I hate that Water Co".
c) "I hate that Water Co.".

Maybe I have been reading too much written by them common yankees but in that example a looks correct, c looks possible and b looks just odd.
 
Borris said:
In K_C's example, if I were to type the following:
The full stop terminates the clause, and the sentence structure is robust.

In the following sentence:
There is no termination of the clause - A more accurate version would be
However, to avoid doubling up punctuation, we use the outer mark alone.

This is the English way, the way of Kings and Noblemen, granted to us by Harry, England and St George.

Them Yanquees just can't speak proper.

I'm quite happy to bow to your superior knowledge :D

Beren said:
Borris: Do you know if it is the same when using an abreviation?

i.e. a) "I hate that Water Co."
b) "I hate that Water Co".
c) "I hate that Water Co.".

Maybe I have been reading too much written by them common yankees but in that example a looks correct, c looks possible and b looks just odd.

I think it's a because the '.' is a shortening of the word, so still part of the sentence. To put the .". would be pointless (har har) so we just use the one that represents something (the shortening of the word) rather than the one that signifies the end of the sentence.
 
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kitten_caboodle said:
I think it's a because the '.' is a shortening of the word, so still part of the sentence. To put the .". would be pointless (har har) so we just use the one that represents something (the shortening of the word) rather than the one that signifies the end of the sentence.

So in short you still think Borris is wrong then?

/stirs

:D
 
Beren said:
So in short you still think Borris is wrong then?

/stirs

:D

no because Co. is an abbreviation of Company and the '.' is therefore there as a substitute for the rest of the letters, hence it's still part of the sentence and comes within the quotation marks.

Same as Borris said for vs. ;)

/:p
 
Beren said:
So in short you still think Borris is wrong then?
In your example, the correct answer is a), as you have not included the clause in another sentence. The quotation marks are superfluous.

In c), if I wrote the following, using your example:
She said "I hate that Water Co.".
The example is now correct. This is subtly different to the placement of punctuation in parentheses.

In the example that I gave earlier:
Versus is abbreviated to "vs.", not "vs".
I can change this around to read:
Versus is not abbreviated to "vs", but to "vs.".
A you can see, the sentence would lose all meaning if I wrote:
Versus is not abbreviated to "vs", but to "vs".
 
I tell you something else that really, really bugs me.

People who say 'loose' instead of 'lose'

"I'm loosing my mind."

No you aren't. You are losing it.

or 'You loose'.

No I'm not. I might have lost, but I'm certainly not loose.

Just because the sound is stretched in the spoken 'losing', people think they have to add another 'o'.
 
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