You are arguing that "reasonable person" is objective.
I am arguing that "reasonable person" is subjective.
No, really? How did i miss that, oh that's right i didn't.
e: Don't take my word for it...
Christ on a bike, you are the one claiming a reasonable person is set in stone and isn't at all subjective depending on differing circumstances, and now all of a sudden you are agreeing the definition changes depending on differing sets of circumstances? Make your damn mind up would you, this flip-flopping on position doesn't do you any favors.
Even C Kent is as dishonest as you.
The only place the positions have been reversed is with you purposely misinterpreting things, and i say purposefully because how you think I've reversed positions after posting
this is frankly an insult to everyone's intelligence.
I literally quoted a Wikipedia article that covers
a 1856 legal case concerning reasonableness in the law of negligence, that first case and the one that set a precedence for what reasonableness is for the next 150+ years. One that's taught in
A level legal studies to this day to teach students what a reasonable person is.
The important aspect regarding breach of duty is to apply the reasonable person test, established in the case of Blyth v Birmingham Waterworks. This case defined 'fault' as doing something that a reasonable person would not do, or not doing something that a reasonable person would do. It is used for the ordinary person to establish whether or not they have breached the duty of care to the victim.
Study note on standard of care and breach of duty in negligence. Free study and revision resources for law students (LLB Degree/GDL) on tort law and the English Legal System.
www.bitsoflaw.org
Reasonable man
As a general rule, the standard of care required is an objective one, that of a reasonable man.
- Baron Alderson: .. Negligence is the omission to do something, which a reasonable man, guided upon those considerations, which ordinarily regulate the conduct of human affairs, would do, or doing something, which a prudent and reasonable man would not do. The standard demanded is thus not of perfection but of reasonableness. It is an objective standard taking no account of the defendant's incompetence - he may do the best he can and still be found negligent....
- The reasonable man is now often referred to as the reasonable person and has been described by judges in many memorable ways in cases.
Hall v Brooklands Auto-Racing Club [1933] 1 KB 205
Greer LJ: .. the man on the Clapham omnibus....
- Lord Steyn: .. commuters on the London Underground....
- The reasonable person test is an objective one: What would a reasonable person have foreseen in the particular circumstances? Therefore, the defendant is required to take as much care as a reasonable person in his position.
- Lord MacMillan: .. standard of foresight of the reasonable man is, in one sense, an impersonal test. It eliminates the personal equation and is independent of the idiosyncrasies of the particular person whose conduct is in question....
The Student Lawyer discusses the case law surrounding the 'Reasonable Man' test. Is this a test that is subjective or objective?
thestudentlawyer.com
Alderson’s statement portrays the reasonable man as an objective figure whose decision is always the same and takes ‘no account of the defendant’s incompetence’. While this is true, case law proves that at times, the courts have been willing to adjust their decision to the competence of individuals, which makes one question whether the reasonable man is truly as objective as Alderson makes it out to be. Furthermore, Aldersons use of the reasonable ‘man’ is heavily reminiscent of the male-dominated attitudes that existed in the 1800’s, which explains the bias towards men, giving rise to feminist arguments against his statement as a result.
I mean there's gaslighting and then there's what you're doing, outright lying.
Oh, now I see. You don't know what "objective" and "subjective" mean.
Says the person who somehow waffled on for ages and didn't manage to get within a thousand feet of saying what objective and subjective even is. FYI subjective is influenced by or based on personal beliefs or feelings, it's what one person believes typical not based on facts, or it's what they feel is right. Objective is not influenced by personal feelings, interpretations, or prejudice and is based on facts (Like asking 50 people what they believe and reporting that 35 people believe X).
Like i said before your position is beyond ridiculous, you're trying to argue that reasonable person is subjective and standing against you are people who teach law, thousands of people whose jobs hinge the principal, and 150+ years of UK case law that puts reasonableness to the test day in day out.
At this point the only conclusions is that you're trolling.